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XX Means ATPL and CPL Syllabus
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071 01 01 00 ICAO Annex 6
071 01 01 01 Definitions
(01)
Define the following: flight time (aeroplanes);
alternate aerodrome:
An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the expected time of use.
An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.
An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.
An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 1 X X
(02) Define ‘alternate heliport’; ‘flight time (helicopters)’.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section 1, Chapter 1
071 01 01 02 Applicability
(01) State that Part I shall be applicable to the operation of aeroplanes by operators authorised to conduct international commercial air transport (CAT) operations.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 2 X X
(02)
State that Part III shall be applicable to all helicopters engaged in international CAT operations or in international general aviation operations, except helicopters engaged in aerial work.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section 1, Chapter 2
071 01 01 03 General
(01) Explain the compliance with laws, regulations and procedures.
3.1.1 The operator shall ensure that all employees when abroad know that they must comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of those States in which operations are conducted.
3.1.2 The operator shall ensure that all pilots are familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures, pertinent to the performance of their duties, prescribed for the areas to be traversed, the aerodromes to be used and the air navigation facilities relating thereto. The operator shall ensure that other members of the flight crew are familiar with such of these laws, regulations and procedures as are pertinent to the performance of their respective duties in the operation of the aeroplane.
Source:
ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 3.1;
ICAO Annex 6, Part III, Section 2, Chapter 1.1 XX
(02) State the condition(s) required for the establishment of a flight data analysis programme, and state what this programme is part of.
3.3.3 A flight data analysis programme shall be non-punitive and contain adequate safeguards to protect the source(s) of the data.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 3.3
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X
(03) Explain what is a flight safety documents system.
3.3.4 The operator shall establish a flight safety documents system, for the use and guidance of operational personnel, as part of its safety management system.
Note.— Guidance on the development and organization of a flight safety documents system is provided in Attachment F.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 3.3
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X
(04) Explain what is maintenance release.
8.8.1 A maintenance release shall be completed and signed to certify that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in accordance with approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance organization’s procedures manual.
Source:
ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 8.8;
ICAO Annex 6 Part III, Section 2, Chapter 6.7
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X
(05) List and describe the lights to be displayed by aircraft.

Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Appendix 1: 2. Navigation lights to be displayed in the air
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X
071 01 02 00 Operational requirements
071 01 02 01 Applicability
(01) X State the operational regulations applicable to CAT and other activities (e.g. specialised operations (SPO)).
ICAO Annex 6, 17, 18
(EU) No 965/2012 on air operations; Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 on aircrew requirements
(EU) No 1178/2011 on aircrew requirements
Source: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 on air operations; Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 on aircrew requirements
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X
(02) State the nature of CAT operations and exceptions.
Dunno
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X
Source:
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012: Articles 1 and 5,
points ORO.GEN.005 ‘Scope’ and CAT.GEN.100 ‘Competent authority’;
Regulation (EC) No 216/ 2008: Article 1
071 01 02 02 General
(01) X Explain why CAT flights must meet the applicable operational requirements.
Source:
Point ORO.GEN.105 ‘Competent authority’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point ORO.GEN.110 ‘Operator responsibilities’ and related AMCs/GM
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X
(02) Define ‘flight manual limitations — flight through the height velocity (HV) envelope’.
(03) Define ‘helicopter emergency medical service (HEMS)’.
(04) Define ‘operations over a hostile environment — applicability’. Explain that there are certain areas which should not be overflown and state possible sources of that information (e.g. governmental warnings, operator risk assessment).
(05) Define ‘local area operations — approval’.
(06) Explain the requirements about language used for crew communication and in the operations manual.
The operator shall ensure that all crew members can communicate with each other in a common language.
There must be a copy in English. (I can’t find an official reference to this)
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.120 ‘Common language’
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X
(07) Explain which are the operator requirements regarding the management system.
- (a) The operator shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes:
- (1) clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator, including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager;
- (2) a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the operator with regard to safety, referred to as the safety policy;
- (3) the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator, their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness;
- (4) maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;
- (5) documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation;
- (6) a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements. Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and
- (7) any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant Subparts of this Annex or other applicable Annexes.
- (b) The management system shall correspond to the size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities, taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities.
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X
Source:
Point ORO.GEN.200 ‘Management system’;
AMCs/GM to ORO.GEN.205 ‘Contracted activities’ and to ORO.GEN.220 ‘Record-keeping’
(08) Explain which are the operator requirements regarding accident prevention and the flight safety programme.
- Develop and maintain risk awareness among persons involved
- Include a occurrence reporting scheme.
- Digital flight data monitoring programme
- (a) The operator shall establish, implement and maintain a management system that includes:
- (1) clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator, including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager;
- (2) a description of the overall philosophies and principles of the operator with regard to safety, referred to as the safety policy;
- (3) the identification of aviation safety hazards entailed by the activities of the operator, their evaluation and the management of associated risks, including taking actions to mitigate the risk and verify their effectiveness;
- (4) maintaining personnel trained and competent to perform their tasks;
- (5) documentation of all management system key processes, including a process for making personnel aware of their responsibilities and the procedure for amending this documentation;
- (6) a function to monitor compliance of the operator with the relevant requirements. Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system of findings to the accountable manager to ensure effective implementation of corrective actions as necessary; and
- (7) any additional requirements that are prescribed in the relevant Subparts of this Annex or other applicable Annexes.
Source:
Point ORO.GEN.200 ‘Management system’; AMCs/GM to ORO.GEN.205 ‘Contracted activities’, to ORO.GEN.220 ‘Record-keeping’, and to ORO.AOC.130 ‘Flight data monitoring — aeroplanes’
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(09) Explain which are the regulations concerning the carriage of persons on an aircraft.
The operator shall take all measures to ensure that no person is in any part of an aircraft in flight that is not designed for the accommodation of persons unless temporary access has been granted by the commander:
- (a) for the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of the aircraft or of any person, animal or goods therein; or
- (b) to a part of the aircraft in which cargo or supplies are carried, being a part that is designed to enable a person to have access thereto while the aircraft is in flight.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.165 ‘Method of carriage of persons’
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(10) Explain the operator’s and commander’s responsibility concerning portable electronic devices (PEDs).
The operator shall not permit any person to use a portable electronic device (PED) on board an aircraft that could adversely affect the performance of the aircraft’s systems and equipment, and shall take all reasonable measures to prevent such use.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.140 ‘Portable electronic devices’
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(11) Explain the operator’s and commander’s responsibility regarding admission in an aircraft of a person under the influence of drug or alcohol.
The operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that no person enters or is in an aircraft when under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.170 ‘Alcohol and drugs’
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X
(12) Explain the regulations concerning the endangerment of safety.
The operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that no person recklessly or negligently acts or omits to act so as to:
(a) endanger an aircraft or person therein; or
(b) cause or permit an aircraft to endanger any person or property.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.175 ‘Endangering safety’
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(13) List the documents to be carried on each flight.
(a) The following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight, as originals or copies unless otherwise specified:
- (1) the aircraft flight manual (AFM), or equivalent document(s);
- (2) the original certificate of registration;
- (3) the original certificate of airworthiness (CofA);
- (4) the noise certificate, including an English translation, where one has been provided by the authority responsible for issuing the noise certificate;
- (5) a certified true copy of the air operator certificate (AOC);
- (6) the operations specifications relevant to the aircraft type, issued with the AOC;
- (7) the original aircraft radio licence, if applicable;
- (8) the third party liability insurance certificate(s);
- (9) the journey log, or equivalent, for the aircraft;
- (10) the aircraft technical log, in accordance with Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EC) No 2042/2003;
- (11) details of the filed ATS flight plan, if applicable;
- (12) current and suitable aeronautical charts for the route of the proposed flight and all routes along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted;
- (13) procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;
- (14) information concerning search and rescue services for the area of the intended flight, which shall be easily accessible in the flight crew compartment;
- (15) the current parts of the operations manual that are relevant to the duties of the crew members, which shall be easily accessible to the crew members
- (16) the MEL;
- (17) appropriate notices to airmen (NOTAMs) and aeronautical information service (AIS) briefing documentation;
- (18) appropriate meteorological information;
- (19) cargo and/or passenger manifests, if applicable;
- (20) mass and balance documentation;
- (21) the operational flight plan, if applicable;
- (22) notification of special categories of passenger (SCPs) and special loads, if applicable; and
- (23) any other documentation that may be pertinent to the flight or is required by the States concerned with the flight.(b) Notwithstanding (a), for operations under visual flight rules (VFR) by day with other-than-complex motor-powered aircraft taking off and landing at the same aerodrome or operating site within 24 hours, or remaining within a local area specified in the operations manual, the following documents and information may be retained at the aerodrome or operating site instead:
- (1) noise certificate;
(2) aircraft radio licence;
(3) journey log, or equivalent;
(4) aircraft technical log;
(5) NOTAMs and AIS briefing documentation;
(6) meteorological information;
(7) notification of SCPs and special loads, if applicable; and(8) mass and balance documentation. -
- (c) Notwithstanding (a), in case of loss or theft of documents specified in (a)(2) to (a)(8), the operation may continue until the flight reaches its destination or a place where replacement documents can be provided.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.180 ‘Documents, manuals and information to be carried’ and related AMCs/GM
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(14) Explain the operator’s responsibility regarding manuals to be carried on board an aircraft.
Above
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.180 ‘Documents, manuals and information to be carried’ and related AMCs/GM
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X
(15) List the additional information and forms to be carried on board an aircraft.
Above
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.180 ‘Documents, manuals and information to be carried on board an aircraft’ and related AMCs/GM
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(16) List the copies of items of information to be retained on the ground by the operator.
- (a) The operator shall ensure that at least for the duration of each flight or series of flights:
- (1) information relevant to the flight and appropriate for the type of operation is preserved on the ground;
- (2) the information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will be stored; or, if this is impracticable
- (3) the same information is carried in a fireproof container in the aircraft.
- (b) The information referred to in (a) includes:
- (1) a copy of the operational flight plan, where appropriate;
- (2) copies of the relevant part(s) of the aircraft technical log;
- (3) route-specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator;
- (4) mass and balance documentation if required; and
- (5) special loads notification.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.185 ‘Information to be retained on the ground’
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(17) Explain what responsibilies the operator and the commander have regarding the production of and access to records and documents.
The commander shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorised by an authority, provide to that person the documentation required to be carried on board.
Source: Point CAT.GEN.MPA.190 ‘Provision of documentation and records’
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X
071 01 02 03 Operator certification and supervision
(01) Explain what requirement has to be satisfied for the issue of an air operator certificate (AOC).
- (a) The competent authority shall issue the air operator certificate (AOC) when satisfied that the operator has demon strated compliance with the elements required in ORO.AOC.100.
- (b) The certificate shall include the associated operations specifications.
- (a) Upon receiving an application for the initial issue of a certificate for an organisation, the competent authority shall verify the organisation’s compliance with the applicable requirements. This verification may take into account the statement referred to in ORO.AOC.100(b).
- (b) When satisfied that the organisation is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall issue the certificate(s), as established in Appendices I and II. The certificate(s) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. The privileges and scope of the activities that the organisation is approved to conduct shall be specified in the terms of approval attached to the certificate(s).
- (c) To enable an organisation to implement changes without prior competent authority approval in accordance with ORO.GEN.130, the competent authority shall approve the procedure submitted by the organisation defining the scope of such changes and describing how such changes will be managed and notified.
Source: Point ARO.OPS.100 ‘Issue of the air operator certificate’; Point ORO.GEN.210 ‘Personnel requirements’;
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X
Point ORO.AOC.100 ‘Application for an air operator certificate’
(02) Explain what the rules applicable to air operator certification are. Not Sure.....
Source:
Point ORO.AOC.100 ‘Application for an air operator certificate’;
Point ORO.AOC.105 ‘Operations specifications and privileges of an AOC holder’
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X
(03) (Updated 6-1-22) Explain the conditions to be met for the issue or revalidation of an AOC.
- When satisfied that the organisation is in compliance with the applicable requirements, the competent authority shall issue the certificate(s), as established in Appendices I and II. The certificate(s) shall be issued for an unlimited duration. The privileges and scope of the activities that the organisation is approved to conduct shall be specified in the terms of approval attached to the certificate(s).
Or – Could refer to this BGS Q711361:
ORO.GEN.135 Continued validity of an AOC
| (a) | The operator’s certificate shall remain valid subject to:
|
| (b) | Upon revocation or surrender the certificate shall be returned to the competent authority without delay. |
Source: ARO.GEN.310 ‘Initial certification procedure — organisations’
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(04) Explain the contents and conditions of the AOC.
Source: Regulation (EU) No 956/2012, Appendix I ‘AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE’
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071 01 02 04 Operational procedures (except preparation for long-range flight)
(01) Define the terms used for operational procedures.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.106 ‘Use of isolated aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.107 ‘Adequate aerodrome’
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(02) State the operator’s responsibilities regarding the use of air traffic services (ATS).
(a) The operator shall ensure that:
Motor-powered aircraft
- (1) air traffic services (ATS) appropriate to the airspace and the applicable rules of the air are used for all flights whenever available;
- (2) in-flight operational instructions involving a change to the ATS flight plan, when practicable, are coordinated with the appropriate ATS unit before transmission to an aircraft.
(b) Notwithstanding (a), the use of ATS is not required unless mandated by air space requirements for:
- (1) operations under VFR by day of other-than-complex motor-powered aeroplanes;
- (2) helicopters with an MCTOM of 3 175 kg or less operated by day and over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks; or
- (3) local helicopter operations,
provided that search and rescue service arrangements can be maintained.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.100 ‘Use of air traffic services’
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(03) State the operator’s responsibilities regarding authorisation of aerodromes/heliports by the operator.
- (a) The operator shall only use aerodromes and operating sites that are adequate for the type(s) of aircraft and oper ation(s) concerned.
- (b) The use of operating sites shall only apply to:
(1) other-than-complex motor-powered aeroplanes; and (2) helicopters.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.105 ‘Use of aerodromes and operating sites’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.106 ‘Use of isolated aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.107 ‘Adequate aerodrome’
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(04) Explain which elements must be considered by the operator when specifying aerodrome/heliport operating minima.
- (a) The operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome planned to be used. These minima shall not be lower than those established for such aerodromes by the State in which the aerodrome is located, except when specifically approved by that State. Any increment specified by the competent authority shall be added to the minima.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.110 (a) and (c) ‘Aerodrome operating minima’,
Point CAT.OP.MPA.115 ‘Approach flight technique – aeroplanes’ ,
Point SPA.LVO.100 ‘Low visibility operations’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point SPA.LVO.110 ‘General operating requirements’
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(05) Explain what the operator’s responsibilities are regarding departure and approach procedures.
- (a) The operator shall ensure that instrument departure and approach procedures established by the State of the aerodrome are used.
- (b) Notwithstanding (a), the commander may accept an ATC clearance to deviate from a published departure or arrival route, provided obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operating conditions. In any case, the final approach shall be flown visually or in accordance with the established instrument approach procedures.
- (c) Notwithstanding (a), the operator may use procedures other than those referred to in (a) provided they have been approved by the State in which the aerodrome is located and are specified in the operations manual.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.125 ‘Instrument departure and approach procedures’
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(06) Explain which parameters should be considered in noise- abatement procedures.
- (a) Except for VFR operations of other-than-complex motor-powered aeroplanes, the operator shall establish appropriate operating departure and arrival/approach procedures for each aeroplane type taking into account the need to minimise the effect of aircraft noise.
- (b) The procedures shall:
(1) ensure that safety has priority over noise abatement; and
(2) be simple and safe to operate with no significant increase in crew workload during critical phases of flight.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.130 ‘Noise abatement procedures — aeroplanes’;
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X
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.130;
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.130
(07) Explain which elements should be considered regarding routes and areas of operation.
- (a) The operator shall ensure that operations are only conducted along routes, or within areas, for which:
(1) ground facilities and services, including meteorological services, adequate for the planned operation are provided; (2) the performance of the aircraft is adequate to comply with minimum flight altitude requirements;
(3) the equipment of the aircraft meets the minimum requirements for the planned operation; and
(4) appropriate maps and charts are available. - (b) The operator shall ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with any restriction on the routes or the areas of operation specified by the competent authority.
- (c) (a)(1) shall not apply to operations under VFR by day of other-than-complex motor-powered aircraft on flights that depart from and arrive at the same aerodrome or operating site.
The operator shall ensure that operations of single-engined aeroplanes are only conducted along routes, or within areas, where surfaces are available that permit a safe forced landing to be executed.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.135 ‘Routes and areas of operation — general’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.136 ‘Routes and areas of operation — single-engined aeroplanes’
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(08) Explain the requirements for flights in reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM) airspace.
- 2 independent altimeters
- Altitude alerting systems
- Automatic altitude control
- SSR transponder with altitude reporting connected to altimeter in use
Source:
Point SPA.RVSM.100 ‘RVSM operations’;
Point SPA.RVSM.105 ‘RVSM operational approval’;
Point SPA.RVSM.110 ‘RVSM equipment requirements’ and AMC1 SPA.RVSM.110(a);
Point SPA.RVSM.115 ‘RVSM height-keeping errors’
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(09) List the factors to be considered when establishing minimum flight altitude.
- (a) The operator shall establish for all route segments to be flown:
- (1) minimum flight altitudes that provide the required terrain clearance, taking into account the requirements of Subpart C; and
- (2) a method for the flight crew to determine those altitudes.
- (b) The method for establishing minimum flight altitudes shall be approved by the competent authority.
- (c) Where the minimum flight altitudes established by the operator and a State overflown differ, the higher values shall apply.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.145 ‘Establishment of minimum flight altitudes’ and related AMCs/GM;
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.145(a); AMC1.1 CAT.OP.MPA.145(a)
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(10) Explain the requirements for carrying persons with reduced mobility.
- (a) Persons requiring special conditions, assistance and/or devices when carried on a flight shall be considered as SCPs including at least:
- (1) persons with reduced mobility (PRMs) who, without prejudice to Regulation (EC) No 1107/2006, are understood to be any person whose mobility is reduced due to any physical disability, sensory or locomotory, permanent or temporary, intellectual disability or impairment, any other cause of disability, or age;
- (2) infants and unaccompanied children; and
- (3) deportees, inadmissible passengers or prisoners in custody.
- (b) SCPs shall be carried under conditions that ensure the safety of the aircraft and its occupants according to procedures established by the operator.
- (c) SCPs shall not be allocated, nor occupy, seats that permit direct access to emergency exits or where their presence could:(1) impede crew members in their duties;
(2) obstruct access to emergency equipment; or
(3) impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft. - (d) The commander shall be notified in advance when SCPs are to be carried on board.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.155 ‘Carriage of special categories of passengers (SCPs)’
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(11) Explain the operator’s responsibilities for the carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody.
Operator must have procedures for inadmissible passengers, deportees and people in custody to ensure safety . Commander must be notified.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.155 ‘Carriage of special categories of passengers (SCPs)’
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(12) Explain the requirements regarding passenger seating and emergency evacuation.
The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that passengers are seated where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is required, they are able to assist and not hinder evacuation of the aircraft.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.165 ‘Passenger seating’ and related AMCs/GM
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(13) Detail the procedures for passenger briefing in respect of emergency equipment and exits.
The operator shall ensure that passengers are:
- (a) given briefings and demonstrations relating to safety in a form that facilitates the application of the procedures applicable in the event of an emergency; and
- (b) provided with a safety briefing card on which picture-type instructions indicate the operation of emergency equipment and exits likely to be used by passengers.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.170 ‘Passenger briefing’; AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.170;
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.170
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(14) State the flight preparation forms to be completed before flight.
(a) An operational flight plan shall be completed for each intended flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes/ operating sites concerned.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.175 ‘Flight preparation’ and related AMCs/GM;
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.175(a)
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(15) State the commander’s responsibilities during flight preparation.
(b) The flight shall not be commenced unless the commander is satisfied that:
- (1) all items stipulated in 2.a.3 of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 concerning the airworthiness and registration of the aircraft, instrument and equipment, mass and centre of gravity (CG) location, baggage and cargo and aircraft operating limitations can be complied with;
- (2) the aircraft is not operated contrary to the provisions of the configuration deviation list (CDL);
- (3) the parts of the operations manual that are required for the conduct of the flight are available;
- (4) the documents, additional information and forms required to be available by CAT.GEN.MPA.180 are on board;
- (5) current maps, charts and associated documentation or equivalent data are available to cover the intended operation of the aircraft including any diversion that may reasonably be expected;
- (6) ground facilities and services required for the planned flight are available and adequate;
- (7) the provisions specified in the operations manual in respect of fuel, oil, oxygen, minimum safe altitudes, aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes, where required, can be complied with for the planned flight; and
- (8) any additional operational limitation can be complied with.
(c) Notwithstanding (a), an operational flight plan is not required for operations under VFR of:
- (1) other-than-complex motor-powered aeroplane taking off and landing at the same aerodrome or operating site; or
- (2) helicopters with an MCTOM of 3 175 kg or less, by day and over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks in a local area as specified in the operations manual.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.175 ‘Flight preparation’
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(16) State the rules for aerodrome/heliport selection.
(a) Where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons, the operator shall select another adequate take-off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than:
(1) for two-engined aeroplanes:
(i) one hour flying time at an OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or
(ii) the ETOPS diversion time approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart F, subject to any MEL restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass;
(2) for three and four-engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass.
If the AFM does not contain an OEI cruising speed, the speed to be used for calculation shall be that which is achieved with the remaining engine(s) set at maximum continuous power.
(b) The operator shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each instrument flight rules (IFR) flight unless the destination aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome or:
(1) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing or, in the event of in-flight replanning in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.150(d), the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed six hours; and
(2) two separate runways are available and usable at the destination aerodrome and the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the ceiling will be at least 2 000 ft or circling height + 500 ft, whichever is greater, and the ground visibility will be at least 5 km.
(c) The operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when:
(1) the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima; or
(2) no meteorological information is available.
(d) The operator shall specify any required alternate aerodrome(s) in the operational flight plan.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
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Point CAT.OP.MPA.181 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — helicopters’
(17) Explain the planning minima for instrument flight rule (IFR) flights.
(a) Planning minima for a take-off alternate aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110. The ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approach operations available are non-precision approaches (NPA) and/or circling operations. Any limitation related to OEI operations shall be taken into account.
(b) Planning minima for a destination aerodrome other than an isolated destination aerodrome The operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when:
- (1) the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows:(i) RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110; and (ii) for an NPA or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above MDH;
or - (2) two destination alternate aerodromes are selected.
(c) Planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en-route alternate (fuel ERA) aerodrome, en-route
alternate (ERA) aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome for one of these purposes when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima in Table 1.
Table 1
Planning minima
Destination alternate aerodrome, isolated destination aerodrome, fuel ERA and ERA aerodrome

Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.185 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes’
X
(18) Explain the rules for refuelling/defueling with passengers on board.
- (a) An aircraft shall not be refuelled/defuelled with Avgas (aviation gasoline) or wide-cut type fuel or a mixture of these types of fuel, when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking.
- (b) For all other types of fuel, necessary precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall be properly manned by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of the aircraft by the most practical and expeditious means available.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.195 ‘Refuelling/defuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking’ and related AMCs;
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.195;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.200 ‘Refuelling/ defuelling with wide- cut fuel’ and related AMCs;
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.200
X
X
(19) Explain the ‘crew members at station’ policy.
(a) Flight crew members
- (1) During take-off and landing each flight crew member required to be on duty in the flight crew compartment shallbe at the assigned station.
- (2) During all other phases of flight each flight crew member required to be on duty in the flight crew compartment shall remain at the assigned station, unless absence is necessary for the performance of duties in connection with the operation or for physiological needs, provided at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times.
- (3) During all phases of flight each flight crew member required to be on duty in the flight crew compartment shall remain alert. If a lack of alertness is encountered, appropriate countermeasures shall be used. If unexpected fatigue is experienced, a controlled rest procedure, organised by the commander, may be used if workload permits. Controlled rest taken in this way shall not be considered to be part of a rest period for purposes of calculating flight time limitations nor used to justify any extension of the duty period.
(b) Cabin crew members
During critical phases of flight, each cabin crew member shall be seated at the assigned station and shall not perform any activities other than those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.
Source:
CAT.OP.MPA.210 ‘Crew members at stations’ and related AMCs;
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.210(b); GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.210
X
X
(20) Explain the use of seats, safety belts and harnesses.
- (a) Crew members
- (1) During take-off and landing, and whenever decided by the commander in the interest of safety, each crewmember shall be properly secured by all safety belts and restraint systems provided.
- (2) During other phases of the flight, each flight crew member in the flight crew compartment shall keep the assigned station safety belt fastened while at his/her station.
- (b) Passengers
- (1) Before take-off and landing, and during taxiing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, the commander shall be satisfied that each passenger on board occupies a seat or berth with his/her safety belt or restraint system properly secured.
- (2) The operator shall make provisions for multiple occupancy of aircraft seats that is only allowed on specified seats. The commander shall be satisfied that multiple occupancy does not occur other than by one adult and one infant who is properly secured by a supplementary loop belt or other restraint device.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.225 ‘Seats, safety belts and restraint systems’
X
X
(21) Explain the requirements for securing passenger cabin and galley.
- (a) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that before taxiing, take-off and landing all exits and escape paths are unobstructed.
- (b) The commander shall ensure that before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, all equipment and baggage are properly secured.
X
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.230 ‘Securing of passenger compartment and galley(s)’
(22) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding smoking on board.
The commander shall not allow smoking on board:
- (a) whenever considered necessary in the interest of safety;
- (b) during refuelling and defuelling of the aircraft;
- (c) while the aircraft is on the surface unless the operator has determined procedures to mitigate the risks during ground operations;
- (d) outside designated smoking areas, in the aisle(s) and lavatory(ies);
- (e) in cargo compartments and/or other areas where cargo is carried that is not stored in flame-resistant containers or covered by flame-resistant canvas; and
- (f) in those areas of the passenger compartment where oxygen is being supplied.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.240 ‘Smoking on board’
X
X
(23) State under which conditions a commander can commence or continue a flight regarding meteorological conditions.
CAT.OP.MPA.245 Meteorological conditions — all aircraft
- (a) On IFR flights the commander shall only:(1) commence take-off; or(2) continue beyond the point from which a revised ATS flight plan applies in the event of in-flight replanning,when information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions, at the time of arrival, at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the planning minima.
- (b) On IFR flights, the commander shall only continue towards the planned destination aerodrome when the latest information available indicates that, at the expected time of arrival, the weather conditions at the destination, or at least one destination alternate aerodrome, are at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
- (c) On VFR flights, the commander shall only commence take-off when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that the meteorological conditions along the part of the route to be flown under VFR will, at the appropriate time, be at or above the VFR limits.
CAT.OP.MPA.246 Meteorological conditions — aeroplanes
In addition to CAT.OP.MPA.245, on IFR flights with aeroplanes, the commander shall only continue beyond:
(a) the decision point when using the reduced contingency fuel (RCF) procedure; or
(b) the pre-determined point when using the pre-determined point (PDP) procedure,
when information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions, at the time of arrival, at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the applicable aerodrome operating minima.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.245 ‘Meteorological conditions — all aircraft’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.246 ‘Meteorological conditions — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.265 ‘Take-off conditions’
X
X
(24) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding ice and other contaminants.
CAT.OP.MPA.250 ‘Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures’
- (a) The operator shall establish procedures to be followed when ground de-icing and anti-icing and related inspections of the aircraft are necessary to allow the safe operation of the aircraft.
- (b) The commander shall only commence take-off if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft, except as permitted under (a) and in accordance with the AFM.
CAT.OP.MPA.255 Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures
- (a) The operator shall establish procedures for flights in expected or actual icing conditions.
- (b) The commander shall only commence a flight or intentionally fly into expected or actual icing conditions if the aircraft is certified and equipped to cope with such conditions.
- (c) If icing exceeds the intensity of icing for which the aircraft is certified or if an aircraft not certified for flight in known icing conditions encounters icing, the commander shall exit the icing conditions without delay, by a change of level and/or route, if necessary by declaring an emergency to ATC.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.250 ‘Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.255 ‘Ice and other contaminants — flight procedures’ and related AMCs/GM;
GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.250 (a) to (l);
GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.250 (a) to (f);
GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.250 (a)(1) to (3); AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.255 (a)
X
X
(25) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding fuel to be carried and in-flight fuel management.
The commander shall only commence a flight or continue in the event of in-flight replanning when satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of usable fuel and oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account the expected operating conditions.
The operator shall establish a procedure to ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management are carried out according to the following criteria.
(a) In-flight fuel checks
- (1) The commander shall ensure that fuel checks are carried out in-flight at regular intervals. The usable remainingfuel shall be recorded and evaluated to:
(i) compare actual consumption with planned consumption;(ii) check that the usable remaining fuel is sufficient to complete the flight, in accordance with (b); and (iii) determine the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome. - (2) The relevant fuel data shall be recorded.
(b) In-flight fuel management
- (1) The flight shall be conducted so that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome isnot less than:
(i) the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel; or(ii) the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required. - (2) If an in-flight fuel check shows that the expected usable fuel remaining on arrival at the destination aerodrome is less than:
- (i) the required alternate fuel plus final reserve fuel, the commander shall take into account the traffic and the operational conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate aerodrome in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel; or
- (ii) the final reserve fuel if no alternate aerodrome is required, the commander shall take appropriate action and proceed to an adequate aerodrome so as to perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel.
- (3) The commander shall declare an emergency when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.
- (4) Additional conditions for specific procedures
(i) On a flight using the RCF procedure, to proceed to the destination 1 aerodrome, the commander shall ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the decision point is at least the total of:
(A) trip fuel from the decision point to the destination 1 aerodrome;
(B) contingency fuel equal to 5 % of trip fuel from the decision point to the destination 1 aerodrome; (C) destination 1 aerodrome alternate fuel, if a destination 1 alternate aerodrome is required; and
(D) final reserve fuel.
(ii) On a flight using the PDP procedure to proceed to the destination aerodrome, the commander shall ensure that the usable fuel remaining at the PDP is at least the total of:
(A) trip fuel from the PDP to the destination aerodrome;
(B) contingency fuel from the PDP to the destination aerodrome; and (C) additional fuel.
Source:
X
X
Point CAT.OP.MPA.260 ‘Fuel and oil supply’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.280 ‘In-flight fuel management — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.281 ‘In-flight fuel management — helicopters’ and AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.281
(26) Detail the rules regarding carriage and use of supplemental oxygen for passengers and aircrew.
The commander shall ensure that flight crew members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 10 000 ft for a period of more than 30 minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13 000 ft.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.285 ‘Use of supplemental oxygen’;
Point CAT.IDE.A.235 ‘Supplemental oxygen — pressurised aeroplanes’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
Flight preparation
(27) Explain the commander’s responsibility regarding approach and landing.
Before commencing an approach to land, the commander shall be satisfied that, according to the information available to him/her, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway or FATO intended to be used should not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach, having regard to the performance information contained in the operations manual.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.300 ‘Approach and landing conditions’ and AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.300;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.305 ‘Commencement and continuation of approach’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(28) Explain the circumstances under which a report shall be submitted.
Source: Point ORO.GEN.160 ‘Occurrence reporting’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
071 01 02 05 All-weather operations
(01) Explain the operator’s responsibility regarding aerodrome/heliport operating minima.
- (a) The operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for each departure, destination or alternate aerodrome planned to be used. These minima shall not be lower than those established for such aerodromes by the State in which the aerodrome is located, except when specifically approved by that State. Any increment specified by the competent authority shall be added to the minima.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.115 ‘Approach flight technique — aeroplanes’ and related AMCs/GM
(02) Define the following terms: ‘circling’,
‘circling’ means the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway/FATO that is not suitably located for a straight-in approach;
- ‘low visibility procedures (LVP)’ means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe operations during lower than standard category I, other than standard category II, category II and III approaches and low visibility take-offs;
- ‘low visibility take-off (LVTO)’ means a take-off with an RVR lower than 400 m but not less than 75 m;
‘visual approach’ means an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain;
Source: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex I
X
(03) Define the following terms: ‘flight control system’,
Source: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex I
X
(04) Define the following terms: ‘final approach and take-off area’.
Source: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex I
(05) Explain the general operating requirements for low-visibility operations.
(a) The operator shall only conduct LTS CAT I operations if:
(1) each aircraft concerned is certified for operations to conduct CAT II operations; and
(2) the approach is flown:
(i) auto-coupled to an auto-land that needs to be approved for CAT IIIA operations; or
(ii) using an approved head-up display landing system (HUDLS) to at least 150 ft above the threshold.
(b) The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if:
(1) each aircraft concerned is certified for operations with a decision height (DH) below 200 ft, or no DH, and equipped in accordance with the applicable airworthiness requirements;
(2) a system for recording approach and/or automatic landing success and failure is established and maintained to monitor the overall safety of the operation;
(3) the DH is determined by means of a radio altimeter;
(4) the flight crew consists of at least two pilots;
(5) all height call-outs below 200 ft above the aerodrome threshold elevation are determined by a radio altimeter.
(c) The operator shall only conduct approach operations utilising an EVS if:
(1) the EVS is certified for the purpose of this Subpart and combines infra-red sensor image and flight information on the HUD;
(2) for operations with an RVR below 550 m, the flight crew consists of at least two pilots;
(3) for CAT I operations, natural visual reference to runway cues is attained at least at 100 ft above the aerodrome threshold elevation;
(4) for approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) and non-precision approach (NPA) operations flown with CDFA technique, natural visual reference to runway cues is attained at least at 200 ft above the aerodrome threshold elevation and the following requirements are complied with:
(i) the approach is flown using an approved vertical flight path guidance mode;
(ii) the approach segment from final approach fix (FAF) to runway threshold is straight and the difference between the final approach course and the runway centreline is not greater than 2o;
(iii) the final approach path is published and not greater than 3,7o;
(iv) the maximum cross-wind components established during certification of the EVS are not exceeded.
Source:
Point SPA.LVO.100 ‘Low visibility operations’ and related AMCs;
Point SPA.LVO.105 ‘LVO approval’;
Point SPA.LVO.110 ‘General operating requirements’; Point SPA.LVO.115 ‘Aerodrome related requirements’
X
(06) Define aerodrome/heliport considerations regarding low- visibility operations.
(a) The operator shall not use an aerodrome for LVOs below a visibility of 800 m unless:
(1) the aerodrome has been approved for such operations by the State of the aerodrome; and (2) low visibility procedures (LVP) have been established.
(b) If the operator selects an aerodrome where the term LVP is not used, the operator shall ensure that there are equivalent procedures that adhere to the requirements of LVP at the aerodrome. This situation shall be clearly noted in the operations manual or procedures manual including guidance to the flight crew on how to determine that the equivalent LVP are in effect.
Source: SPA.LVO.115 ‘Aerodrome related requirements’
X
(07) Explain the training and qualification requirements for flight crew to conduct low-visibility operations.
The operator shall ensure that, prior to conducting an LVO:
- (a) each flight crew member:
- (1) complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the operations manual, including flight simulation training device (FSTD) training, in operating to the limiting values of RVR/VIS (visibility) and DH specific to the operation and the aircraft type;
- (2) is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the operations manual;
- (b) the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed syllabus.
Source: Point SPA.LVO.120 ‘Flight crew training and qualifications’ and related AMCs
X
(08) Explain the operating procedures for low-visibility operations.
- (a) The operator shall establish procedures and instructions to be used for LVOs. These procedures and instructions shall be included in the operations manual or procedures manual and contain the duties of flight crew members during taxiing, take-off, approach, flare, landing, rollout and missed approach operations, as appropriate.
- (b) Prior to commencing an LVO, the pilot-in-command/commander shall be satisfied that:
(1) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities is sufficient;
(2) appropriate LVPs are in force according to information received from air traffic services (ATS); (3) flight crew members are properly qualified.
X
Source: Point SPA.LVO.125 ‘Operating procedures and AMC1 SPA.LVO.125
(09) Explain the operator’s and commander’s responsibilities regarding minimum equipment for low-visibility operations.
(a) The operator shall include the minimum equipment that has to be serviceable at the commencement of an LVO in accordance with the aircraft flight manual (AFM) or other approved document in the operations manual or procedures manual, as applicable.
(b) The pilot-in-command/commander shall be satisfied that the status of the aircraft and of the relevant airborne systems is appropriate for the specific operation to be conducted.
Source: Point SPA.LVO.130 ‘Minimum equipment’
X
(10) Explain the VFR operating minima.

Source: AMC12 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima — VFR OPERATIONS WITH OTHER-THAN-COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED AIRCRAFT’
X
(11) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which conditions the commander can commence take-off.
If the RVR is above the required minimum.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point SPA.LVO.110 ‘General operating requirements’ and related AMCs/GM
X
(12) Aerodrome operating minima: explain that take-off minima are expressed as visibility or runway visual range (RVR).
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’; AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.110;
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.110
X
(13) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the take-off RVR value depending on the aerodrome facilities.

Source:
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’, Table 1.A;
X
AMC2 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’, Table 1.H
(14) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the system minima for non-precision approach (NPA) (minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and decision altitude/height (DA/H), not RVR).

Source:
AMC3 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’ (Table 3: ILS/MLS/GLS; SRA 1NM; VOR; NDB);
AMC6 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’
X
(15) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which conditions a pilot can continue the approach below MDA/H or DA/H.
(a) The commander or the pilot to whom conduct of the flight has been delegated may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR/VIS.
(b) If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued:
(1) below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome; or
(2) into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1 000 ft above the aerodrome.
(c) Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility.
(d) If, after passing 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.
(e) The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.
(f) The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling. If reported and relevant, the midpoint and stopend RVR shall also be controlling. The minimum RVR value for the midpoint shall be 125 m or the RVR required for the touchdown zone if less, and 75 m for the stopend. For aircraft equipped with a rollout guidance or control system, the minimum RVR value for the midpoint shall be 75 m.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.305 ‘Commencement and continuation of approach’;
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.305(e)
X
(16) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest minima for precision approach category 1 (including single-pilot operations).

Source: AMC3 SPA.LVO.100 ‘Low visibility operations’
X
(17) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest minima for precision approach category 2 operations.

Source: AMC4 SPA.LVO.100 ‘Low visibility operations’
X
(18) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest minima for precision approach category 3 operations.

Source: AMC5 SPA.LVO.100 ‘Low visibility operations’
X
(19) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the lowest minima for circling and visual approach.

Source:
AMC7 CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’; AMC9 CAT.OP.MPA.110;
AMC8 CAT.OP.MPA.110
X
(20) Aerodrome operating minima: explain the RVR value and cloud ceiling depending on the aerodrome.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.110 ‘Aerodrome operating minima’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point SPA.LVO.110 ‘General operating requirements’ and related AMCs
(21) Aerodrome operating minima: explain under which conditions an airborne radar approach can be performed and state the relevant minima.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.120 ‘Airborne radar approaches (ARAs) for overwater operations — helicopters’;
AMC1 SPA.HOFO.120 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — COASTAL AERODROME’;
AMC2 SPA.HOFO.120 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — OFFSHORE DESTINATION ALTERNATE AERODROME’;
AMC1 SPA.HOFO.125 ‘Airborne radar approach (ARA) to offshore locations — GENERAL’;
GM1 SPA.HOFO.125 ‘Airborne radar approach (ARA) to offshore locations — GENERAL’;
GM2 SPA.HOFO.125 ‘Airborne radar approach (ARA) to offshore locations — GLOBAL NAVIGATION SATELLITE SYSTEM (GNSS)/AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEM’
071 01 02 06 Instruments and equipment
(01) Explain which items do not require an equipment approval.
- Spare fuses
- Torches
- Clock
- Chart holder
- First Aid Kit
- Emergency medical kit
- Survival and signalling equipment
- Child restraint devices
- Sea anchors
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.100 ‘Instruments and equipment — general’ and related GM, and
point CAT.IDE.H.100 ‘Instruments and equipment — general’;
Points CAT.IDE.A.105/CAT.IDE.H.105 ‘Minimum equipment for flight’
X
X
(02) Explain the requirements regarding availability of spare electrical fuses.
10% (min3) of each rating in use.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.110 ‘Spare electrical fuses’ and related GM
X
X
(03) Explain the requirements regarding windshield wipers.
MCTOM >5700kg windscreen wipers for each pilot station
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.120 ‘Equipment to clear windshield’ and related AMCs
X
X
(04) List the minimum equipment required for day and night VFR flights.


Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.125 ‘Operations under VFR by day’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(05) List the minimum equipment required for IFR flights.
Above
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.130 ‘Operations under IFR or at night — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment’ and related AMCs/GM;
Point CAT.IDE.H.130 ‘Operations under IFR or at night — flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment’ and related AMCs/GM
X
(06) Explain the required additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR.
Aeroplanes operated under IFR with a single-pilot shall be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.135/CAT.IDE.H.135 ‘Additional equipment for single-pilot operation under IFR’
X
(07) State the requirements for an altitude alerting system.
- (a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with an altitude alerting system:
- (1) turbine propeller powered aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg or having an MOPSC of more than nine; and
- (2) aeroplanes powered by turbo-jet engines.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.140 ‘Altitude alerting system’
X
X
(08) State the requirements for radio altimeters.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.H.145 ‘Radio altimeters’
(09) State the requirements for ground proximity warning system (GPWS)/terrain awareness and warning system (TAWS).
The requirement for a Class A TAWS to provide a warning to the flight crew for excessive downwards glide slope deviation should apply to all final approach glide slopes with angular vertical navigation (VNAV) guidance, whether provided by the instrument landing system (ILS), microwave landing system (MLS), satellite based augmentation system approach procedure with vertical guidance (SBAS APV (localiser performance with vertical guidance approach LPV)), ground-based augmentation system (GBAS (GPS landing system, GLS) or any other systems providing similar guidance. The same requirement should not apply to systems providing vertical guidance based on barometric VNAV.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.150 ‘Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)’
X
X
(10) State the requirements for airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS).
ACAS II required if;
-Turbine powered MCTOM > 5700kg
MOPSC >19
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.155 ‘Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)’
X
X
(11) State the conditions under which an aircraft must be fitted with a weather radar.
- Night IMC
- Relevant weather possible
- Pressurised aircraft
- MCTOM > 5700kg
- MOPSC > 19
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.160/CAT.IDE.H.160 ‘Airborne weather detecting equipment’
X
X
(12) State the circumstances under which a cockpit voice recorder (CVR) is compulsory (after 1998).
- Multi-engine turbine MOPSC >9
- All MCTOM >5700 kg
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.185/CAT.IDE.H.185 ‘Cockpit voice recorder’
X
X
(13) State the rules regarding the location, construction, installation, and operation of cockpit voice recorders (CVRs) (after 1998).
- Location – crash survivable
- Construction – Impact survivable ELT operable for 90 days.
- Installation –
- Operation – Automatically before aircraft moves, manually as early as possible in cockpit preparations.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.185/CAT.IDE.H.185 ‘Cockpit voice recorder’
X
X
(14) State the circumstances under which a flight data recorder (FDR) is compulsory (after 1998).
MCTOM > 5700kg
Multi-engine turbine MOPSC > 9
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.190/CAT.IDE.H.190 ‘Flight data recorder’
X
X
(15) State the rules regarding the location, construction, installation, and operation of flight data recorders (FDRs) (after 1998).
Don’t care…
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.190/CAT.IDE.A.190 ‘Flight data recorder’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(16) Explain the requirements about seats, seat safety belts, harnesses, and child-restraint devices.
- (a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with:
- (1) a seat or berth for each person on board who is aged 24 months or more;
- (2) a seat belt on each passenger seat and restraining belts for each berth except as specified in (3);
- (3) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on each passenger seat and restraining belts on each berth in the case of aeroplanes with an MCTOM of less than 5 700 kg and with an MOPSC of less than nine, after 8 April 2015;
- (4) a child restraint device (CRD) for each person on board younger than 24 months;
- (5) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system incorporating a device that will automatically restrain the occupant’s torso in the event of rapid deceleration:(i) on each flight crew seat and on any seat alongside a pilot’s seat; (ii) on each observer seat located in the flight crew compartment;
- (6) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on each seat for the minimum required cabin crew.
- (b) A seat belt with upper torso restraint system shall:
- (1) have a single point release;
- (2) on flight crew seats, on any seat alongside a pilot’s seat and on the seats for the minimum required cabin crew, include two shoulder straps and a seat belt that may be used independently.
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.205/CAT.IDE.H.205 ‘Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(17) Explain the requirements about ‘Fasten seat belt’ and ‘No smoking’ signs.
Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped with a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.210/CAT.IDE.H.210 ‘Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs’
X
X
(18) Explain the requirements regarding internal doors and curtains.
Aeroplanes shall be equipped with:
- (a) in the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 19, a door between the passenger compartment and the flight crew compartment, with a placard indicating ‘crew only’ and a locking means to prevent passengers from opening it without the permission of a member of the flight crew;
- (b) a readily accessible means for opening each door that separates a passenger compartment from another compartment that has emergency exits;
- (c) a means for securing in the open position any doorway or curtain separating the passenger compartment from other areas that need to be accessed to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat;
- (d) a placard on each internal door or adjacent to a curtain that is the means of access to a passenger emergency exit, to indicate that it must be secured open during take-off and landing; and
- (e) a means for any member of the crew to unlock any door that is normally accessible to passengers and that can be locked by passengers.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.215 ‘Internal doors and curtains’
X
X
First-aid and emergency equipment
(19) Explain the requirements regarding first-aid kits.
- (a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with first-aid kits, in accordance with Table 1.

- (b) First-aid kits shall be:
(1) readily accessible for use; and (2) kept up to date.
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.220/CAT.IDE.H.220 ‘First-aid kit’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(20) Explain the requirements regarding emergency medical kits and first-aid oxygen.
CAT.IDE.A.225 Emergency medical kit
- (a) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 30 shall be equipped with an emergency medical kit when any point on the planned route is more than 60 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed from an aerodrome at which qualified medical assistance could be expected to be available.
- (b) The commander shall ensure that drugs are only administered by appropriately qualified persons.
- (c) The emergency medical kit referred to in (a) shall be:(1) dust and moisture proof;
(2) carried in a way that prevents unauthorised access; and (3) kept up to date.
CAT.IDE.A.230 First-aid oxygen
(a) Pressurised aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25 000 ft, in the case of operations for which a cabin crew member is required, shall be equipped with a supply of undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.
(b) The oxygen supply referred to in (a) shall be calculated using an average flow rate of at least 3 litres standard temperature pressure dry (STPD)/minute/person. This oxygen supply shall be sufficient for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8 000 ft but does not exceed 15 000 ft, for at least 2 % of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.
(c) There shall be a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than two, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply.
(d) The first-aid oxygen equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least 4 litres STPD per minute.
(d) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with an additional portable PBE installed adjacent to the hand fire extinguisher referred to in CAT.IDE.A.250, or adjacent to the entrance of the cargo compartment, in case the hand fire extinguisher is installed in a cargo compartment.
(e) A PBE while in use shall not prevent the use of the means of communication referred to in CAT.IDE.A.170, CAT.IDE.A.175, CAT.IDE.A.270 and CAT.IDE.A.330.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.225 ‘Emergency medical kit’; AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.225;
AMC2 CAT.IDE.A.225; AMC3 CAT.IDE.A.225; AMC4 CAT.IDE.A.225; GM1 CAT.IDE.A.225;
Point CAT.IDE.A.230 ‘First-aid oxygen’
X
X
(21) Detail the rules regarding crew protective breathing equipment.
- (a) All pressurised aeroplanes and those unpressurised aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg or having an MOPSC of more than 19 seats shall be equipped with protective breathing equipment (PBE) to protect the eyes, nose and mouth and to provide for a period of at least 15 minutes:(1) oxygen for each flight crew member on duty in the flight crew compartment;(2) breathing gas for each required cabin crew member, adjacent to his/her assigned station; and(3) breathing gas from a portable PBE for one member of the flight crew, adjacent to his/her assigned station, in the case of aeroplanes operated with a flight crew of more than one and no cabin crew member.
- (b) A PBE intended for flight crew use shall be installed in the flight crew compartment and be accessible for immediate use by each required flight crew member at his/her assigned station.
(c) A PBE intended for cabin crew use shall be installed adjacent to each required cabin crew member station.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.245 ‘Crew protective breathing equipment’;
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.245
X
X
(22) Describe the type and location of handheld fire extinguishers.
- (a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher in the flight crew compartment.
- (b) At least one hand fire extinguisher shall be located in, or readily accessible for use in, each galley not located on the main passenger compartment.
- (c) At least one hand fire extinguisher shall be available for use in each class A or class B cargo or baggage compartment and in each class E cargo compartment that is accessible to crew members in flight.
- (d) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent for the required fire extinguishers shall be suitable for the type of fire likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used and to minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentration in compartments occupied by persons.
- (e) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with at least a number of hand fire extinguishers in accordance with Table 1, conveniently located to provide adequate availability for use in each passenger compartment.

Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.250/CAT.IDE.H.250 ‘Hand fire extinguishers’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(23) Describe the location of crash axes and crowbars.
- (a) Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg or with an MOPSC of more than nine shall be equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.
- (b) In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 200, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the rearmost galley area.
- (c) Crash axes and crowbars located in the passenger compartment shall not be visible to passengers.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.255 ‘Crash axe and crowbar’; AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.255
X
X
(24) Specify the colours and markings used to indicate break-in points.
If areas of the aeroplane’s fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, such areas shall be marked as shown in Figure 1.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.260/CAT.IDE.H.260 ‘Marking of break-in points’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(25) Explain the requirements for means of emergency evacuation.
- (a) Aeroplanes with passenger emergency exit sill heights of more than 1,83 m (6 ft) above the ground shall be equipped at each of those exits with a means to enable passengers and crew to reach the ground safely in an emergency.
- (b) Notwithstanding (a), such means are not required at overwing exits if the designated place on the aeroplane structure at which the escape route terminates is less than 1,83 m (6 ft) from the ground with the aeroplane on the ground, the landing gear extended, and the flaps in the take-off or landing position, whichever flap position is higher from the ground.
- (c) Aeroplanes required to have a separate emergency exit for the flight crew for which the lowest point of the emergency exit is more than 1,83 m (6 ft) above the ground shall have a means to assist all flight crew members in descending to reach the ground safely in an emergency.
- (d) The heights referred to in (a) and (c) shall be measured:(1) with the landing gear extended; and(2) after the collapse of, or failure to extend of, one or more legs of the landing gear, in the case of aeroplanes with a type certificate issued after 31 March 2000.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.265 ‘Means for emergency evacuation’
X
X
(26) Explain the requirements for megaphones.
Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 60 and carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with the following quantities of portable battery-powered megaphones readily accessible for use by crew members during an emergency evacuation:
(a) For each passenger deck:

(b) For aeroplanes with more than one passenger deck, in all cases when the total passenger seating configuration is more than 60, at least one megaphone.
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.270/CAT.IDE.H.270 ‘Megaphones’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(27) Explain the requirements for emergency lighting and marking.
(a) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than nine shall be equipped with an emergency lighting system having an independent power supply to facilitate the evacuation of the aeroplane.
(b) In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 19, the emergency lighting system, referred to in (a) shall include:
(1) sources of general cabin illumination;
(2) internal lighting in floor level emergency exit areas;
(3) illuminated emergency exit marking and locating signs;
(4) in the case of aeroplanes for which the application for the type certificate or equivalent was filed before 1 May 1972, when operated by night, exterior emergency lighting at all overwing exits and at exits where descent assist means are required;
(5) in the case of aeroplanes for which the application for the type certificate or equivalent was filed after 30 April 1972, when operated by night, exterior emergency lighting at all passenger emergency exits; and
(6) in the case of aeroplanes for which the type certificate was first issued on or after 31 December 1957, floor proximity emergency escape path marking system(s) in the passenger compartments.
(c) In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or less and type certified on the basis of the Agency’s airworthiness codes, the emergency lighting system, referred to in (a) shall include the equipment referred to in (b)(1) to (3).
(d) In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or less that are not certified on the basis of the Agency’s airworthiness codes, the emergency lighting system, referred to in (a) shall include the equipment referred to in (b)(1).
(e) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of nine or less, operated at night, shall be equipped with a source of general cabin illumination to facilitate the evacuation of the aeroplane.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.275/CAT.IDE.H.275 ‘Emergency lighting and marking
X
X
(28) Explain the requirements for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
- (a) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 19 shall be equipped with at least:
- (1) two ELTs, one of which shall be automatic, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA after 1 July 2008; or
- (2) one automatic ELT or two ELTs of any type, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA on or before 1 July 2008.
- (b) Aeroplanes with an MOPSC of 19 or less shall be equipped with at least:
(1) one automatic ELT, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA after 1 July 2008; or
(2) one ELT of any type, in the case of aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA on or before 1 July 2008. - (c) An ELT of any type shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz.
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.280/CAT.IDE.H.280 ‘Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(29) Explain the requirements for life jackets, life rafts, survival kits, and ELTs.
(a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board or equivalent flotation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided:
(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than 50 NM from the shore or taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.
(b) Each life-jacket or equivalent individual flotation device shall be equipped with a means of electric illumination for the purpose of facilitating the location of persons.
(c) Seaplanes operated over water shall be equipped with:
(1) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the seaplane on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics; and
(2) equipment for making the sound signals as prescribed in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, where applicable.
(d) Aeroplanes operated over water at a distance away from land suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
(1) 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 NM, whichever is the lesser, in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
(2) for all other aeroplanes, 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 NM, whichever is the lesser,
shall be equipped with the equipment specified in (e).
(e) Aeroplanes complying with (d) shall carry the following equipment:
(1) life-rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board, stowed so as to facilitate their ready use in an emergency, and being of sufficient size to accommodate all the survivors in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity;
(2) a survivor locator light in each life-raft;
(3) life-saving equipment to provide the means for sustaining life, as appropriate for the flight to be undertaken; and
(4) at least two survival ELTs (ELT(S)).
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.285 ‘Flight over water’; Point CAT.IDE.A.305 ‘Survival equipment’
Point CAT.IDE.H.280 ‘Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)’; Point CAT.IDE.H.290 ‘Life-jackets’;
Point CAT.IDE.H.295 ‘Crew survival suits’;
Point CAT.IDE.H.300 ‘Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights’
X
X
(30) Explain the requirements for crew survival suit.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.H.295 ‘Crew survival suits’; GM1 CAT.IDE.H.295
(31) Explain the requirements for survival equipment.
- (a) Aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with:
- (1) signalling equipment to make the distress signals;
- (2) at least one ELT(S); and
- (3) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board.
- (b) The additional survival equipment specified in (a)(3) does not need to be carried when the aeroplane:
- (1) remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially difficult corresponding to:(i) 120 minutes at one-engine-inoperative (OEI) cruising speed for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversion routes; or(ii) 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aeroplanes;
- (2) remains within a distance no greater than that corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing, for aeroplanes certified in accordance with the applicable airworthiness standard.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.305/CAT.IDE.H.305 ‘Survival equipment’
X
X
(32) Explain the additional requirements for helicopters operating to or from helidecks located in hostile sea areas.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.H.310 ‘Additional requirements for helicopters conducting offshore operations in a hostile sea area’
(33) Explain the requirements for emergency flotation equipment.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.H.315 ‘Helicopters certified for operating on water — miscellaneous equipment’;
Point CAT.IDE.H.320 ‘All helicopters on flights over water — ditching’
071 01 02 07 Communication and navigation equipment
(01) Explain the general requirements for communication and navigation equipment.
- (a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a headset with a boom or throat microphone or equivalent for each flight crew member at their assigned station in the flight crew compartment.
- (b) Aeroplanes operated under IFR or at night shall be equipped with a transmit button on the manual pitch and roll control for each required flight crew member.
Source: Point CAT.IDE.A.325 ‘Headset’ and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(02) Explain why the radio-communication equipment must be able to send and receive on 121.5 MHz.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.330/CAT.IDE.H.330 ‘Radio communication equipment’
X
X
(03) Explain the requirements regarding the provision of an audio selector panel.
Aeroplanes operated under IFR shall be equipped with an audio selector panel operable from each required flight crew member station.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.335/CAT.IDE.H.335 ‘Audio selector panel’
X
X
(04) List the requirements for radio equipment when flying under VFR by reference to visual landmarks.
Aeroplanes operated under VFR over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall be equipped with radio communication equipment necessary under normal radio propagation conditions to fulfil the following:
- (a) communicate with appropriate ground stations;
- (b) communicate with appropriate ATC stations from any point in controlled airspace within which flights are intended; and
- (c) receive meteorological information.
Source: Points CAT.IDE.A.340/CAT.IDE.H.340 ‘Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks’
X
X
(05) List the requirements for communication and navigation equipment when operating under IFR or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks.
- (a) Aeroplanes operated under IFR or under VFR over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall be equipped with radio communication and navigation equipment in accordance with the applicable airspace requirements.
- (b) Radio communication equipment shall include at least two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any point on the route, including diversions.
- (c) Notwithstanding (b), aeroplanes operated for short haul operations in the North Atlantic minimum navigation performance specifications (NAT MNPS) airspace and not crossing the North Atlantic shall be equipped with at least one long range communication system, in case alternative communication procedures are published for the airspace concerned.
- (d) Aeroplanes shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with the flight plan.
- (e) Aeroplanes operated on flights in which it is intended to land in IMC shall be equipped with suitable equipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land in IMC and for any designated alternate aerodrome.
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.345/CAT.IDE.H.345 ‘Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks’
X
X
(06) Explain what equipment is required to operate in airspace with reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM).
- 2 Independent altimeter measurement systems
- Altitude alerting system
- Automatic altitude control system
- Transponder
Source: Point SPA.RVSM.110 ‘RVSM equipment requirements’
(07) Explain the conditions under which a crew member interphone system and public address system are mandatory.
MCTOM >15000kg
MOPSC >9
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.170/CAT.IDE.H.170 ‘Flight crew interphone system’;
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.170/CAT.IDE.H.170;
Points CAT.IDE.A.175/CAT.IDE.H.175 ‘Crew member interphone system’;
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.175/CAT.IDE.H.175;
Points CAT.IDE.A.180/CAT.IDE.H.180 ‘Public address system’;
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.180/CAT.IDE.H.180
X
X
(08) List the equipment for operations requiring a radio communication.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.H.325 ‘Headset’;
Point CAT.IDE.H.330 ‘Radio communication equipment’; Point CAT.IDE.H.335 ‘Audio selector panel’;
Point CAT.IDE.H.340 ‘Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks’
(09) List the equipment for operations that require a radio navigation system.
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.H.325 ‘Headset’; AMC1 CAT.IDE.H.325;
Point CAT.IDE.H.345 ‘Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks’
(10) Explain the requirements regarding the provision of a transponder.
…
Source:
Points CAT.IDE.A.350/CAT.IDE.H.350 ‘Transponder’; AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.350/CAT.IDE.H.350
X
X
(11) Explain the requirements regarding the provision of electronic data management products.
…
Source:
Point CAT.IDE.A.355 ‘Electronic navigation data management’;
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.355 ‘Electronic navigation data management — ELECTRONIC NAVIGATION DATA PRODUCTS’
X
X
071 01 02 08 Intentionally left blank
071 01 02 09 Flight crew
(01) Explain the requirement regarding flight crew composition and in-flight relief.
- (a) The composition of the flight crew and the number of flight crew members at designated crew stations shall be not less than the minimum specified in the aircraft flight manual or operating limitations prescribed for the aircraft.
- (b) The flight crew shall include additional flight crew members when required by the type of operation and shall not be reduced below the number specified in the operations manual.
- (c) All flight crew members shall hold a licence and ratings issued or accepted in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 (1) and appropriate to the duties assigned to them.
- (d) The flight crew member may be relieved in flight of his/her duties at the controls by another suitably qualified flight crew member.
- (e) When engaging the services of flight crew members who are working on a freelance or part-time basis, the operator shall verify that all applicable requirements of this Subpart and the relevant elements of Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, including the requirements on recent experience, are complied with, taking into account all services rendered by the flight crew member to other operator(s) to determine in particular:(1) the total number of aircraft types or variants operated; and(2) the applicable flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.100 ‘Composition of flight crew; AMC1 ORO.FC.100(c);
X
X
Point ORO.FC.105 ‘Designation as pilot-in- command/commander’;
AMC1 ORO.FC.105(b)(2);(c); GM1 ORO.FC.105 (b)(2); AMC1 ORO.FC.105(c);
Point ORO.FC.110 ‘Flight engineer’;
Point ORO.FC.115 ‘Crew resource management (CRM) training’;
Point ORO.FC.200 ‘Composition of flight crew’; AMC1 ORO.FC.200(a);
Point ORO.FC.A.201 ‘In-flight relief of flight crew members’;
Point ORO.FC.202 Single-pilot operations under IFR or at night
(02) Explain the requirement for conversion training and checking.
- (a) In the case of aeroplane or helicopter operations, the flight crew member shall complete the operator conversion training course before commencing unsupervised line flying:(1) when changing to an aircraft for which a new type or class rating is required;(2) when joining an operator.
- (b) The operator conversion training course shall include training on the equipment installed on the aircraft as relevant to flight crew members’ roles.
ORO.FC.130 Recurrent training and checking
- (a) Each flight crew member shall complete annual recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he/she operates, including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried.
- (b) Each flight crew member shall be periodically checked to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.120 ‘Operator conversion training’; Point ORO.FC.145 ‘Provision of training’;
Point ORO.FC.220 ‘Operator conversion training and checking’;
and related AMCs/GM
X
X
(03) Explain the requirement for differences training and familiarisation training.
- (a) Flight crew members shall complete differences or familiarisation training when required by Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 and when changing equipment or procedures requiring additional knowledge on types or variants currently operated.
- (b) The operations manual shall specify when such differences or familiarisation training is required.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.125 ‘Differences training and familiarisation training’;
AMC1 ORO.FC.125
X
X
(04) Explain the conditions for upgrade from co-pilot to commander.
(a) For aeroplane and helicopter operations, the command course shall include at least the following elements:
- (1) training in an FSTD, which includes line oriented flight training (LOFT) and/or flight training;
- (2) the operator proficiency check, operating as commander;
- (3) command responsibilities training;
- (4) line training as commander under supervision, for a minimum of: (i) 10 flight sectors, in the case of aeroplanes; and(ii) 10 hours, including at least 10 flight sectors, in the case of helicopters;
- (5) completion of a line check as commander and demonstration of adequate knowledge of the route or area to be flown and of the aerodromes, including alternate aerodromes, facilities and procedures to be used; and
- (6) crew resource management training.
Source: Point ORO.FC.205 ‘Command course’
X
X
(05) Explain the minimum qualification requirements to operate as a commander.
(a) The holder of a CPL(A) (aeroplane) shall only act as commander in commercial air transport on a single-pilot aeroplane if:
- (1) when carrying passengers under VFR outside a radius of 50 NM (90 km) from an aerodrome of departure, he/she has a minimum of 500 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or holds a valid instrument rating; or
- (2) when operating on a multi-engine type under IFR, he/she has a minimum of 700 hours of flight time on aeroplanes, including 400 hours as pilot-in-command. These hours shall include 100 hours under IFR and 40 hours in multi-engine operations. The 400 hours as pilot-in-command may be substituted by hours operating as co-pilot within an established multi-pilot crew system prescribed in the operations manual, on the basis of two hours of flight time as co-pilot for one hour of flight time as pilot-in command.
(b) For operations under VFR by day of performance class B aeroplanes (a)(1) shall not apply.
Source: Point ORO.FC.A.250 ‘Commanders holding a CPL(A)’
X
X
(06) Explain the requirement for recurrent training and checking.
(a) Each flight crew member shall complete recurrent training and checking relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which they operate.
(b) Operator proficiency check
(1) Each flight crew member shall complete operator proficiency checks as part of the normal crew complement to
demonstrate competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.
(2) When the flight crew member will be required to operate under IFR, the operator proficiency check shall be conducted without external visual reference, as appropriate.
(3) The validity period of the operator proficiency check shall be six calendar months. For operations under VFR by day of performance class B aeroplanes conducted during seasons not longer than eight consecutive months, one operator proficiency check shall be sufficient. The proficiency check shall be undertaken before commencing commercial air transport operations.
(4) The flight crew member involved in operations by day and over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks with an other-than-complex motor-powered helicopter may complete the operator proficiency check in only one of the relevant types held. The operator proficiency check shall be performed each time on the type least recently used for the proficiency check. The relevant helicopter types that may be grouped for the purpose of the operator proficiency check shall be contained in the operations manual.
(5) Notwithstanding ORO.FC.145(a)(2), for operations of other-than-complex motor-powered helicopters by day and over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks and performance class B aeroplanes, the check may be conducted by a suitably qualified commander nominated by the operator, trained in CRM concepts and the assessment of CRM skills. The operator shall inform the competent authority about the persons nominated.
(c) Line check
(1) Each flight crew member shall complete a line check on the aircraft to demonstrate competence in carrying out normal line operations described in the operations manual. The validity period of the line check shall be 12 calendar months.
(2) Notwithstanding ORO.FC.145(a)(2), line checks may be conducted by a suitably qualified commander nominated by the operator, trained in CRM concepts and the assessment of CRM skills.
(d) Emergency and safety equipment training and checking
Each flight crew member shall complete training and checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety
equipment carried. The validity period of an emergency and safety equipment check shall be 12 calendar months.
(e) CRM training
(1) Elements of CRM shall be integrated into all appropriate phases of the recurrent training.
(2) Each flight crew member shall undergo specific modular CRM training. All major topics of CRM training shall be covered by distributing modular training sessions as evenly as possible over each three-year period.
-
- (f) Each flight crew member shall undergo ground training and flight training in an FSTD or an aircraft, or a combination of FSTD and aircraft training, at least every 12 calendar months.
- (g) The validity periods mentioned in (b)(3), (c) and (d) shall be counted from the end of the month when the check was taken.
- (h) When the training or checks required above are undertaken within the last three months of the validity period, the new validity period shall be counted from the original expiry date.
Source: Point ORO.FC.230 ‘Recurrent training and checking’
X
X
(07) Explain the requirement for a pilot to operate on either pilot’s seat.
- (a) Commanders whose duties require them to operate in either pilot seat and carry out the duties of a co-pilot, or commanders required to conduct training or checking duties, shall complete additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual. The check may be conducted together with the operator proficiency check prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b).
- (b) The additional training and checking shall include at least the following: (1) an engine failure during take-off;
(2) a one-engine-inoperative approach and go-around; and
(3) a one-engine-inoperative landing. - (c) In the case of helicopters, commanders shall also complete their proficiency checks from left- and right-hand seats, on alternate proficiency checks, provided that when the type rating proficiency check is combined with the operator proficiency check the commander completes his/her training or checking from the normally occupied seat.
- (d) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried out in an aircraft, the engine failure shall be simulated.
- (e) When operating in the co-pilot’s seat, the checks required by ORO.FC.230 for operating in the commander’s seat shall, in addition, be valid and current.
- (f) The pilot relieving the commander shall have demonstrated, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b), practice of drills and procedures that would not, normally, be his/her responsibility. Where the differences between left- and right-hand seats are not significant, practice may be conducted in either seat.
- (g) The pilot other than the commander occupying the commander’s seat shall demonstrate practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in ORO.FC.230(b), which are the commander’s responsibility acting as pilot monitoring. Where the differences between left- and right-hand seats are not significant, practice may be conducted in either seat.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.235 ‘Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat’;
AMC1 ORO.FC.235(d); GM1 ORO.FC.235(f);(g)
X
X
(08) Explain the minimum recent experience requirements for the commander and the co-pilot.
GM1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience
AEROPLANES, HELICOPTERS, POWERED-LIFT, AIRSHIPS AND SAILPLANES
If a pilot or a PIC is operating under the supervision of an instructor to comply with the required three take-offs, approaches and landings, no passengers may be on board.
Source:
Point FCL.060 ‘Recent experience’; AMC1 FCL.060(b)(1);
GM1 FCL.060(b)(1)
X
X
(09) Specify the route and aerodrome/heliport knowledge required for a PIC/commander.
- (a) In accordance with 8.e of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, one pilot amongst the flight crew, qualified as pilot-in-command in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, shall be designated by the operator as pilot-in-command/commander.
- (b) The operator shall only designate a flight crew member to act as pilot-in-command/commander if he/she has:
- (1) the minimum level of experience specified in the operations manual;
- (2) adequate knowledge of the route or area to be flown and of the aerodromes, including alternate aerodromes, facilities and procedures to be used;
- (3) in the case of multi-crew operations, completed an operator’s command course if upgrading from co-pilot to pilot-in-command/commander.
- (c) The pilot-in-command/commander or the pilot, to whom the conduct of the flight may be delegated, shall have had initial familiarisation training of the route or area to be flown and of the aerodromes, facilities and procedures to be used. This route/area and aerodrome knowledge shall be maintained by operating at least once on the route or area or to the aerodrome within a 12-month period.
- (d) In the case of performance class B aeroplanes involved in commercial air transport operations under VFR by day, (c) shall not apply.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.105 ‘Designation as pilot-in-command/ commander’;
AMC1 ORO.FC.105(b)(2);(c); GM1 ORO.FC.105(b)(2);
AMC1 ORO.FC.105(c)
X
X
(10) Explain the requirement to operate on more than one aircraft type or variant.
- (a) Flight crew members operating more than one type or variant of aircraft shall comply with the requirements prescribed in this Subpart for each type or variant, unless credits related to the training, checking, and recent experience requirements are defined in the data established in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 1702/2003 for the relevant types or variants.
- (b) Appropriate procedures and/or operational restrictions shall be specified in the operations manual for any operation on more than one type or variant.
Source:
Point ORO.FC.140 ‘Operation on more than one type or variant’;
Point ORO.FC.240 ‘Operation on more than one type or variant’;
AMC1 ORO.FC.240(a)(1)
X
X
(11) Explain that when a flight crew member operates both helicopters and aeroplanes, the operations are limited to one of each type.
Source: Point ORO.FC.240 ‘Operation on more than one type or variant’
X
X
(12) Explain the requirement(s) for training records.
- (e) The operator shall preserve the information used for the preparation and execution of a flight and personnel training records, even if the operator ceases to be the operator of that aircraft or the employer of that crew member, provided this is within the timescales prescribed in (c).
Source: Point ORO.MLR.115 ‘Record-keeping’
X
X
(13) Explain the crew members’ responsibilities in the execution of their duties, and define the commander’s authority.
- (a) The crew member shall be responsible for the proper execution of his/her duties that are:
- (1) related to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants; and
- (2) specified in the instructions and procedures in the operations manual.
- (b) The crew member shall:
- (1) report to the commander any fault, failure, malfunction or defect which the crew member believes may affect the airworthiness or safe operation of the aircraft including emergency systems, if not already reported by another crew member;
- (2) report to the commander any incident that endangered, or could have endangered, the safety of the operation, if not already reported by another crew member;
- (3) comply with the relevant requirements of the operator’s occurrence reporting schemes;
- (4) comply with all flight and duty time limitations (FTL) and rest requirements applicable to their activities;
- (5) when undertaking duties for more than one operator:(i) maintain his/her individual records regarding flight and duty times and rest periods as referred to in applicable FTL requirements; and(ii) provide each operator with the data needed to schedule activities in accordance with the applicable FTL requirements.
- (c) The crew member shall not perform duties on an aircraft:
- (1) when under the influence of psychoactive substances or alcohol or when unfit due to injury, fatigue, medication, sickness or other similar causes;
- (2) until a reasonable time period has elapsed after deep water diving or following blood donation;
- (3) if applicable medical requirements are not fulfilled;
- (4) if he/she is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his/her assigned duties; or
- (5) if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue as referred to in 7.f of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 or feels otherwise unfit, to the extent that the flight may be endangered.
CAT.GEN.MPA.105 Responsibilities of the commander
(a) The commander, in addition to complying with CAT.GEN.MPA.100, shall:
(1) be responsible for the safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board, as soon as the commander arrives on board the aircraft, until the commander leaves the aircraft at the end of the flight;
(2) be responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft:
(i) for aeroplanes, from the moment the aeroplane is first ready to move for the purpose of taxiing prior to take-off, until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and the engine(s) used as primary propulsion unit(s) is(are) shut down;
(ii) for helicopters, when the rotors are turning;
(3) have authority to give all commands and take any appropriate actions for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons and/or property carried therein in accordance with 7.c of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008;
(4) have authority to disembark any person, or any part of the cargo, that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants;
(5) not allow a person to be carried in the aircraft who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered;
(6) have the right to refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody if their carriage increases the risk to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants;
(7) ensure that all passengers are briefed on the location of emergency exits and the location and use of relevant safety and emergency equipment;
(8) ensure that all operational procedures and checklists are complied with in accordance with the operations manual;
(9) not permit any crew member to perform any activity during critical phases of flight, except duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft;
(10) ensure that flight recorders:
(i) are not disabled or switched off during flight; and
(ii) in the event of an accident or an incident that is subject to mandatory reporting: (A) are not intentionally erased;
(B) are deactivated immediately after the flight is completed; and
(C) are reactivated only with the agreement of the investigating authority;
(11) decide on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the configuration deviation list (CDL) or the minimum equipment list (MEL);
(12) ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out in accordance with the requirements of Annex I (Part-M) to Regulation (EC) No 2042/2003;
(13) be satisfied that relevant emergency equipment remains easily accessible for immediate use.
(b) The commander, or the pilot to whom conduct of the flight has been delegated, shall, in an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, take any action he/she considers necessary under the circumstances in accordance with 7.d of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. In such cases he/she may deviate from rules, operational procedures and methods in the interest of safety.
(c) Whenever an aircraft in flight has manoeuvred in response to an airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) resolution advisory (RA), the commander shall submit an ACAS report to the competent authority.
(d) Bird hazards and strikes:
(1) Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall inform the air traffic service (ATS) unit as soon as flight crew workload allows.
(2) Whenever an aircraft for which the commander is responsible suffers a bird strike that results in significant damage to the aircraft or the loss or malfunction of any essential service, the commander shall submit a written bird strike report after landing to the competent authority.
CAT.GEN.MPA.110 Authority of the commander
The operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that all persons carried in the aircraft obey all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein.
Source:
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.100 ‘Crew responsibilities;
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.105 ‘Responsibilities of the commander;
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.110 ‘Authority of the commander’
X
X
(14) Explain the operator’s and commander’s responsibilities regarding persons on board, admission to the flight crew compartment and carriage of unauthorised persons or cargo.
(a) The operator shall ensure that no person, other than a flight crew member assigned to a flight, is admitted to, or carried in, the flight crew compartment unless that person is:
(1) an operating crew member;
(2) a representative of the competent or inspecting authority, if required to be there for the performance of his/her official duties; or
(3) permitted by and carried in accordance with instructions contained in the operations manual.
(b) The commander shall ensure that:
(1) admission to the flight crew compartment does not cause distraction or interference with the operation of the flight; and
(2) all persons carried in the flight crew compartment are made familiar with the relevant safety procedures.
(c) The commander shall make the final decision regarding the admission to the flight crew compartment.
Source:
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.135 ‘Admission to the flight crew compartment;
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.165 ‘Method of carriage of persons;
Point CAT.GEN.MPA.105 ‘Responsibilities of the commander’
(15) Explain the requirements for the initial operator’s crew resource management (CRM) training.
- (a) The flight crew member shall have completed an initial CRM training course before commencing unsupervised line flying.
- (b) Initial CRM training shall be conducted by at least one suitably qualified CRM trainer who may be assisted by experts in order to address specific areas.
- (c) If the flight crew member has not previously received theoretical training in human factors to the ATPL level, he/she shall complete, before or combined with the initial CRM training, a theoretical course provided by the operator and based on the human performance and limitations syllabus for the ATPL as established in Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011.
Source: Point ORO.FC.215 ‘Initial operator’s crew resource management (CRM) training’
X
X
071 01 02 10 Cabin crew/crew members other than flight crew
(01) Explain who is regarded as cabin crew member.
- ‘cabin crew member’ means an appropriately qualified crew member, other than a flight crew or technical crew member, who is assigned by an operator to perform duties related to the safety of passengers and flight during operations;
Source: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex I ‘Definitions’
X
X
(02) Detail the requirements regarding the number and composition of cabin crew.
- (a) The number and composition of cabin crew shall be determined in accordance with 7.a of Annex IV to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, taking into account operational factors or circumstances of the particular flight to be operated. At least one cabin crew member shall be assigned for the operation of aircraft with an MOPSC of more than 19 when carrying one or more passenger(s).
- (b) For the purpose of complying with (a), the minimum number of cabin crew shall be the greater of the following:
- (1) the number of cabin crew members established during the aircraft certification process in accordance with the applicable certification specifications, for the aircraft cabin configuration used by the operator; or
- (2) if the number under (1) has not been established, the number of cabin crew established during the aircraft certification process for the maximum certified passenger seating configuration reduced by 1 for every whole multiple of 50 passenger seats of the aircraft cabin configuration used by the operator falling below the maximum certified seating capacity; or
- (3) one cabin crew member for every 50, or fraction of 50, passenger seats installed on the same deck of the aircraft to be operated.
- (c) For operations where more than one cabin crew member is assigned, the operator shall nominate one cabin crew member to be responsible to the pilot-in-command/commander.
Source:
Point ORO.CC.100 ‘Number and composition of cabin crew; AMC1 ORO.CC.100;
GM1 ORO.CC.100;
Point ORO.CC.205 ‘Reduction of the number of cabin crew during ground operations and in unforeseen circumstances’
X
X
(03) Explain the conditions and the additional conditions for assignment to duties.
(a) Cabin crew members shall only be assigned to duties on an aircraft if they:
(1) are at least 18 years of age;
(2) have been assessed, in accordance with the applicable requirements of Annex IV (Part-MED) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011, as physically and mentally fit to perform their duties and discharge their responsibilities safely; and
(3) have successfully completed all applicable training and checking required by this Subpart and are competent to perform the assigned duties in accordance with the procedures specified in the operations manual.
(b) Before assigning to duties cabin crew members who are working on a freelance or part-time basis, the operator shall verify that all applicable requirements of this Subpart are complied with, taking into account all services rendered by the cabin crew member to any other operator(s), to determine in particular:
(1) the total number of aircraft types and variants operated; and
(2) the applicable flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements.
(c) Operating cabin crew members, as well as their role with regard to the safety of passengers and flight, shall be clearly identified to the passengers.
Source:
Point ORO.CC.110 ‘Conditions for assignment to duties; Point ORO.CC.210 ‘Additional conditions for assignment to duties;
GM1 ORO.CC.210(d)
X
X
(04) Explain the requirements regarding senior cabin crew members.
- (a) When more than one cabin crew member is required, the composition of the cabin crew shall include a senior cabin crew member nominated by the operator.
- (b) The operator shall nominate cabin crew members to the position of senior cabin crew member only if they: (1) have at least one year of experience as operating cabin crew member; and
(2) have successfully completed a senior cabin crew training course and the associated check. - (c) The senior cabin crew training course shall cover all duties and responsibilities of senior cabin crew members and shall include at least the following elements:(1) pre-flight briefing;
(2) cooperation with the crew;
(3) review of operator requirements and legal requirements; (4) accident and incident reporting;
(5) human factors and crew resource management (CRM); and (6) flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements. - (d) The senior cabin crew member shall be responsible to the commander for the conduct and coordination of normal and emergency procedures specified in the operations manual, including for discontinuing non-safety-related duties for safety or security purposes.
- (e) The operator shall establish procedures to select the most appropriately qualified cabin crew member to act as senior cabin crew member if the nominated senior cabin crew member becomes unable to operate. Changes to these procedures shall be notified to the competent authority.
Source:
Point ORO.CC.200 ‘Senior cabin crew member; AMC1 ORO.CC.200(c);(d);(e)
X
X
(05) Explain the conditions for operating on more than one aircraft type or variant.
- (a) A cabin crew member shall not be assigned to operate on more than three aircraft types, except that, with the approval of the competent authority, the cabin crew member may be assigned to operate on four aircraft types if for at least two of the types:
- (1) safety and emergency equipment and type-specific normal and emergency procedures are similar; and
- (2) non-type-specific normal and emergency procedures are identical.
- (b) For the purpose of (a) and for cabin crew training and qualifications, the operator shall determine:
- (1) each aircraft as a type or a variant taking into account, where available, the relevant data established in accordance with Regulation (EC) No 1702/2003 for the relevant aircraft type or variant; and
- (2) variants of an aircraft type to be different types if they are not similar in the following aspects: (i) emergency exit operation;(ii) location and type of portable safety and emergency equipment; (iii) type-specific emergency procedures.
Source:
Point ORO.CC.250 ‘Operation on more than one aircraft type or variant;
AMC1 ORO.CC.250(b); GM1 ORO.CC.250
X
X
071 01 02 11 Intentionally left blank
071 01 02 12 Flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements
NEEDS WORK !! SO BLOODY BORING !
(01) Explain the definitions used for the regulation of flight time limitations.
Source:
Point ORO.FTL.100 ‘Scope’;
Point ORO.FTL.105 ‘Definitions’ (values of Table 1 excluded)
X
X
(02) Explain the flight and duty time limitations.
Must not exceed:
- 60 duty hours in 7 consecutive days.
- 110 duty hours in 14 consecutive days.
- 190 hours in 28 consecutive days.
Total flight time:
- 100 hours in 28 consecutive days
- 900 hours in a calendar year
- 1000 hours in 12 consecutive months
Source:
Point ORO.FTL.200 ‘Home base’;
Point ORO.FTL.210 ‘Flight times and duty periods’
X
X
(03) Explain the requirements regarding the maximum daily flight duty period.

Source:
Point ORO.FTL.205 ‘Flight duty period (FDP)’;
Point ORO.FTL.205(b) ‘Basic maximum daily FDP’ (use of the tables but not memorisation)
X
X
(04) Explain the requirements regarding rest periods.
Source: Point ORO.FTL.235 ‘Rest periods’
X
X
(05) Explain the possible extension of flight duty period due to in- flight rest.
Source:
Point ORO.FTL.205 ‘Flight duty period (FDP)’;
Point ORO.FTL.205(e) ‘Maximum daily FDP with the use of extensions due to in-flight rest’
X
X
(06) Explain that it is the captain’s discretion to extend flight duty in case of unforeseen circumstances in actual flight operations.
Source:
Point ORO.FTL.205 ‘Flight duty period (FDP)’;
Point ORO.FTL.205(f) ‘Unforeseen circumstances in flight operations — commander’s discretion’
X
X
(07) Explain the requirement regarding standby.
Source: Point ORO.FTL.225 ‘Standby and duties at the airport’
X
X
071 01 03 00 Long-range flights
071 01 03 01 Flight management
(01) Minimum time routes: define and interpret minimum time route (route that gives the shortest flight time from departure to destination adhering to all ATC and airspace restrictions).
In the question…
Source: N/A
X
(02) State the circumstances in which a take-off alternate must be selected.
- (a) Where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons, the operator shall select another adequate take-off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than:
- (1) for two-engined aeroplanes:(i) one hour flying time at an OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or(ii) the ETOPS diversion time approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart F, subject to any MEL restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass;
- (2) for three and four-engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass.
If the AFM does not contain an OEI cruising speed, the speed to be used for calculation shall be that which is achieved with the remaining engine(s) set at maximum continuous power.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.181 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — helicopters’
X
(03) State the maximum flight distance of a take-off alternate for:
— two-engined aeroplanes;
— ETOPS-approved aeroplanes;
— three- or four-engined aeroplanes.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.181 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — helicopters’
X
(04) State the factors to be considered in the selection of a take- off alternate.
(a) Planning minima for a take-off alternate aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110. The ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approach operations available are non-precision approaches (NPA) and/or circling operations. Any limitation related to OEI operations shall be taken into account.
(b) Planning minima for a destination aerodrome other than an isolated destination aerodrome The operator shall only select the destination aerodrome when:
- (1) the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows:(i) RVR/visibility (VIS) specified in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.110; and (ii) for an NPA or a circling operation, the ceiling at or above MDH;
or - (2) two destination alternate aerodromes are selected.
(c) Planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome, isolated aerodrome, fuel en-route alternate (fuel ERA) aerodrome, en-route
alternate (ERA) aerodrome
The operator shall only select an aerodrome for one of these purposes when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima in Table 1.

Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.185 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.186 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — helicopters’
X
(05) State when a destination alternate need not be selected.
- (b) The operator shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each instrument flight rules (IFR) flight unless the destination aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome or:
- (1) the duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing or, in the event of in-flight replanning in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.150(d), the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed six hours; and
- (2) two separate runways are available and usable at the destination aerodrome and the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the ceiling will be at least 2 000 ft or circling height + 500 ft, whichever is greater, and the ground visibility will be at least 5 km.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.181 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — helicopters’
X
(06) State when two destination alternates must be selected.
(c) The operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when:
- (1) the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima; or
- (2) no meteorological information is available.
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.181 ‘Selection of aerodromes and operating sites — helicopters’
X
(07) State the factors to be considered in the selection of an en- route alternate aerodrome.
Above
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.185 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.186 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — helicopters’
X
(08) State the factors to be considered in the selection of an en- route alternate aerodrome.
Above
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.185 ‘Planning minima for IFR flights — aeroplanes’
X
071 01 03 02 Transoceanic and polar flights (ICAO Doc 7030 ‘Regional Supplementary Procedures — North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual’)
(01) According to ICAO Doc 7030, explain that special rules apply to the North Atlantic (NAT) Region, and crews need to be specifically trained before flying in this area.
Source: NAT 007, 1.3.8 Crew Training
X
(02) Describe the possible indications of navigation system degradation, including any system-generated warning.
Hmmm..
Source: NAT 007, Chapter 12 Procedures in the event of navigation system degradation or failure
X
(03) Describe by what emergency means course and inertial navigation system (INS) can be cross-checked in the case of three navigation systems and two navigation systems.
a) use the basic IRS/GPS outputs to adjust heading to maintain mean track and to calculate ETAs.
b) draw the cleared route on a chart and extract mean true tracks between waypoints.
c) at intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot position (LAT/LONG) on the chart and adjust heading to regain track.
Source: NAT 007, Chapter 12 Procedures in the event of navigation system degradation or failure
X
(04) Describe the general ICAO procedures applicable in NAT airspace if the aircraft is unable to continue the flight in accordance with its air traffic control (ATC) clearance.
a) use the basic IRS/GPS outputs to adjust heading to maintain mean track and to calculate ETAs.
b) draw the cleared route on a chart and extract mean true tracks between waypoints.
c) at intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot position (LAT/LONG) on the chart and adjust heading to regain track.
d) turn on all aircraft exterior lights (commensurate with appropriate operating limitations);
e) keep the SSR transponder on at all times and, when able, squawk 7700, as appropriate;
f) as soon as practicable, the pilot shall advise air traffic control of any deviation from assigned clearance;
g) use whatever means is appropriate (i.e., voice and/or CPDLC) to communicate during a contingency or emergency;
h) if voice communication is used, the radiotelephony distress signal (MAYDAY) or urgency signal (PAN PAN) preferably spoken three times, shall be used, as appropriate;
i) when emergency situations are communicated via CPDLC, the controller may respond via CPDLC. However, the controller may also attempt to make voice communication contact with the aircraft;
Note.— Additional guidance on emergency procedures for controllers and radio operators, and flight crew in data link operations can be found in the Global Operational Data Link (GOLD) Manual (Doc 10037).
j) establish communications with and alert nearby aircraft by broadcasting, at suitable intervals on 121.5 MHz (or, as a backup, on the inter-pilot air-to-air frequency 123.450 MHz) and where appropriate on the frequency in use: aircraft identification, the nature of the distress condition, intention of the person in command, position (including the ATS route designator or the track code, as appropriate) and flight level; and
k) the controller should attempt to determine the nature of the emergency and ascertain any assistance that may be required. Subsequent ATC action with respect to that aircraft shall be based on the intentions of the pilot and overall traffic situation.
Source: NAT 007, 13.2 General procedures
X
(05) Describe the ICAO procedures applicable in NAT airspace in case of radio-communication failure.
General Provisions
- The flight crew of an aircraft experiencing a two-way ATS communications failure should operate the SSR Transponder on identity Mode A Code 7600 and Mode C.
2. When so equipped, an aircraft should use SATVOICE to contact the responsible radio station via special telephone numbers/short codes published in State AIPs (see also NAT Doc 003, “High Frequency Management Guidance Material for the NAT Region” which can be downloaded from the www.icao.int/EURNAT/, following “EUR & NAT Documents”, then “NAT Documents”). However, it must be appreciated that pending further system developments and facility implementations the capability for Ground (ATC)-initiated calls varies between different NAT OACCs.
3.If the aircraft is not equipped with SATVOICE then the flight crew should attempt to use VHF to contact any (other) ATC facility or another aircraft, inform them of the difficulty, and request that they relay information to the ATC facility with which communications are intended.
4. The inter-pilot air-to-air VHF frequency, 123.450 MHz, may be used to relay position reports via another aircraft. (N.B. The emergency frequency 121.5 MHz should not be used to relay regular communications, but since all NAT traffic is required to monitor the emergency frequency, it may be used, in these circumstances, to establish initial contact with another aircraft and then request transfer to the inter-pilot frequency for further contacts).
5.
In view of the traffic density in the NAT region, flight crews of aircraft experiencing a two- way ATS communications failure should broadcast regular position reports on the inter-pilot frequency (123.450 MHz) until such time as communications are re-established.
Source: NAT 007, 6.6 HF Communications failure
X
(06) Describe the recommended initial action if an aircraft is unable to obtain a revised ATC clearance.
13.4.6 If the aircraft is required to deviate from track or route to avoid adverse meteorological conditions and prior clearance cannot be obtained, an ATC clearance shall be obtained at the earliest possible time. Until an ATC clearance is received, the pilot shall take the following actions:
a) if possible, deviate away from an organized track or route system;
b) establish communications with and alert nearby aircraft by broadcasting, at suitable intervals: aircraft identification, flight level, position (including ATS route designator or the track code) and intentions, on the frequency in use and on 121.5 MHz (or, as a backup, on the inter-pilot air-to-air frequency 123.450 MHz);
c) watch for conflicting traffic both visually and by reference to ACAS (if equipped);
Note.— If, as a result of actions taken under the provisions of 13.4.6 b) and c), the pilot determines that there is another aircraft at or near the same flight level with which a conflict may occur, then the pilot is expected to adjust the path of the aircraft, as necessary, to avoid conflict.
d) turn on all aircraft exterior lights (commensurate with appropriate operating limitations);
e) for deviations of less than 9.3 km (5 NM) from the originally cleared track or route remain at a level assigned by ATC;
f) for deviations greater than or equal to 9.3 km (5 NM) from the originally cleared track or route, when the aircraft is approximately 9.3 km (5 NM) from track or route, initiate a level change in accordance with Table 13-1;
g) if the pilot receives clearance to deviate from cleared track or route for a specified distance and, subsequently, requests, but cannot obtain a clearance to deviate beyond that distance, the pilot should apply a 300 ft vertical offset from normal cruising levels in accordance with Table 13-1 before deviating beyond the cleared distance.
h) when returning to track or route, be at its assigned flight level when the aircraft is within approximately 9.3 km (5 NM) of the centre line; and
i) if contact was not established prior to deviating, continue to attempt to contact ATC to obtain a clearance. If contact was established, continue to keep ATC advised of intentions and obtain essential traffic information.
Source: NAT 007, Chapter 13 Special procedures for in-flight contingencies
X
(07) Describe the subsequent action for aircraft able to maintain assigned flight level and for aircraft unable to maintain assigned flight level.
Can’t find it..
Source: NAT 007, Chapter 13 Special procedures for in-flight contingencies
X
(08)
Should be a great circle.
Use an AIP to find acceptable flight levels
Flight Planning on Random Route Segments in a Predominantly East – West Direction
4.2.6 Doc 7030 states that flights operating between North America and Europe shall generally be considered as operating in a predominantly east-west direction. However, flights planned between these two continents via the North Pole shall be considered as operating in a predominantly north-south direction. Except in those areas defined in State AIPs where operators meeting specified requirements can flight plan their user-preferred trajectories, the following applies:
- For flights operating at or south of 70°N, the planned tracks shall normally be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of half or whole degrees of latitude with meridians spaced at intervals of 10 degrees from the Greenwich meridian to longitude 70°W.
- For flights operating north of 70°N and at or south of 80°N, the planned tracks shall normally be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes with meridians normally spaced at intervals of 20 degrees from the Greenwich meridian to longitude 60°W, using the longitudes 000W, 020W, 040W and 060W.
- For flights operating at or south of 80°N, the distance between significant points shall, as far as possible, not exceed one hour’s flight time. When the flight time between successive significant points is less than 30 minutes, one of these points may be omitted. Additional significant points should be established when deemed necessary due to aircraft speed or the angle at which the meridians are crossed, e.g.:
- a) at intervals of 10 degrees of longitude (between 5°W and 65°W) for flights operating at or south of 70°N; and
- b) at intervals of 20 degrees of longitude (between 10°W and 50°W) for flights operating north of 70°N and at or south of 80°N.
- For flights operating north of 80°N, the planned tracks shall normally be defined by points of intersection of parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes with meridians expressed in whole degrees. The distance between significant points shall normally equate to not less than 30 and not more than 60 minutes of flying time.
-
Flight Planning on Random Routes in a Predominantly North – South Direction
4.2.7 Except in those areas defined in State AIPs where operators meeting specified requirements can flight plan their user-preferred trajectories, the following applies:
- For flights whose flight paths at or south of 80°N are predominantly oriented in a north- south direction, the planned tracks shall normally be defined by significant points formed by the intersection of whole degrees of longitude with specified parallels of latitude which are spaced at intervals of 5 degrees.
- For flights operating north of 80°N, the planned tracks shall be defined by points of intersection of parallels of latitude expressed in degrees and minutes with meridians expressed in whole degrees. The distance between significant points shall normally equate to not less than 30 and not more than 60 minutes of flying time.
Source: ICAO Doc 7030, NAT 2.1.9.1 General; NAT 007, 2.1.3; NAT 007, Chapter 4 Flight Planning
X
(09) Specify the method by which planned tracks are defined (by latitude and longitude) in the NAT airspace: when operating predominately in an east–west direction south of 70°N, and when operating predominately in an east–west direction north of 70°N.
Above
Source: ICAO Doc 7030, NAT 2.1.9 Route; NAT 007,
Chapter 4 (Flights Planning on Random Route Segments in a Predominantly East – West Direction)
X
(10) State the maximum flight time recommended between significant points on random routes.
Source: ICAO Doc 7030, NAT 2.1.9 Route; NAT 007,
Chapter 4 (Flights Planning on Random Route Segments in a Predominantly East – West Direction and Predominantly North – South Direction)
X
(11) Specify the method by which planned tracks for random routes are defined for flights operating predominantly in a north–south direction.
Source: ICAO Doc 7030, NAT 2.1.9 Route; NAT 007,
Chapter 4 (Flights Planning on Random Routes in a Predominantly North – South Direction)
X
(12) Describe how the desired random route must be specified in the ATC flight plan.
Using ‘DCT’ to each lat/long even if some are part of an OTS track.
‘DCT’ routing is a great circle route.
Source: NAT 007, 4.2 Flight planning requirements on specific routes
X
(13) Describe what precautions can be taken when operating in the area of compass unreliability as a contingency against INS failure.
Close monitoring of divergence of output between individual systems is essential if errors are to be avoided and faulty units identified.
Source:
NAT 007, Chapter 12 Procedures in the event of navigation system degradation or failure (not including detailed information on route structures and their coordinates); NAT 007, Chapter 8 (Master document — position plotting)
X
071 01 03 03 North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA)
NAT Region
North Atlantic Operations and Airspace Manual (NAT Doc 007 Version 2017-1 and NAT Doc 7030)
(01) State the lateral dimensions (in general terms) and vertical limits of the NAT HLA.
FL285-FL420

Source: NAT 007, 17.1 GENERAL: 17.1.1 and 17.1.2
X
(02) Define the following acronyms: LRNS, MASPS, NAT HLA, OCA, OTS, PRM, RVSM, SLOP, and WATRS.
Look it up !
Source: NAT 007, Glossary of Terms
X
(03) State the NAT HLA operations.
1.1.2 It is implicit in the concept of the NAT HLA that all flights within the airspace achieve the highest standards of horizontal and vertical navigation performance and accuracy. Formal monitoring programmes are undertaken to quantify the achieved performances and to compare them with standards required to ensure that established Target Levels of Safety (TLS) are met.
Note: Collision Risk Modelling is used to estimate risk in each of the three dimensions (i.e. lateral, longitudinal and vertical). Target maxima set for these estimates are expressed in terms of potential collisions per flight hour and are known as “Target Levels of Safety (TLSs)”.
1.1.3 Aircraft operating within the NAT HLA are required to meet specified navigation performance in the horizontal plane through the carriage and proper use of navigation equipment that meets identified standards and has been approved as such by the State of Registry or State of the operator for the purpose. Such approvals encompass all aspects affecting the expected navigation performance of the aircraft, including the designation of appropriate cockpit/flight deck operating procedures.
Source: NAT 007, 1.1.2; 1.1.3; 1.1.5; 1.1.6; 1.1.7; 1.2.1;
1.2.2; 1.3.1; 1.3.2; 1.3.6; 1.3.7; 1.3.8; 1.3.9; 1.3.10; 1.3.11;
1.3.12
X
(04) Describe the routes for aircraft with only one long-range navigation system (LRNS).
1.4.1 A number of special routes have been developed for aircraft equipped with only one LRNS and carrying normal short-range navigation equipment (VOR, DME, ADF), which require to cross the North Atlantic between Europe and North America (or vice versa). It should be recognised that these routes are within the NAT HLA, and that State approval must be obtained prior to flying along them. These routes are also available for interim use by aircraft normally approved for unrestricted NAT HLA operations that have suffered a partial loss of navigation capability and have only a single remaining functional LRNS. Detailed descriptions of the special routes known as ‘Blue Spruce Routes’ are included in Chapter 3 of this Document. Other routes also exist within the NAT HLA that may be flown by aircraft equipped with only a single functioning LRNS. These include routings between the Azores and the Portuguese mainland and/or the Madeira Archipelago and also routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canaries/Lisbon FIR to the east of longitude 009° 01′ W (viz.T9). Other routes available for single LRNS use are also established in the NAT HLA, including a route between Iceland and the east coast of Greenland and two routes between Kook Islands on the west coast of Greenland and Canada.

Source: NAT 007, 1.4.1
X
(05) Describe the routes for aircraft with short-range navigation equipment only.
1.4.2 If this single LRNS is a GPS it must be approved in accordance with FAA TSO-C129 or later standard as Class A1, A2, B1, B2, C1 or C2, or with equivalent EASA documentation ETSO- C129a. Some States may have additional requirements regarding the carriage and use of GPS (e.g. a requirement for FDE RAIM) and flight crews should check with their own State of Registry to ascertain what, if any, they are.
Routes for Aircraft with Short-Range Navigation Equipment Only
1.4.3 Aircraft that are equipped only with short-range navigation equipment (VOR, DME, ADF) may operate through the NAT HLA but only along routes G3 or G11. However, once again formal State approval must be obtained. (See Chapter 3 for details of these routes.)
1.4.4 The letter ‘X’ shall be inserted in Item 10 of the ATS flight plan to denote that a flight is approved to operate in NAT HLA. The filed ATS flight plan does not convey information to the controller on any NAT HLA approval limitations. Therefore, it is the responsibility of the pilot in command to take account of aircraft or flight crew limitations and if appropriate, decline any unsanctioned ATC clearances.
Source: NAT 007, 1.4.2; 1.4.3
X
(06) Explain why the horizontal (i.e. latitudinal and longitudinal) and vertical navigation performance of operators within NAT HLA is monitored on a continual basis.
If a deviation is identified, follow- up action after flight is taken, both with the operator and the State of Registry of the aircraft involved, to establish the cause of the deviation and to confirm the approval of the flight to operate in NAT HLA and/or RVSM airspace. The overall navigation performance of all aircraft in the NAT HLA is compared to the standards established for the region, to ensure that the relevant TLSs are being maintained. (See Chapter 11).
Source: NAT 007, 1.9.1
X
(07) Describe the organised track system (OTS).
2.2.1 The appropriate OACC constructs the OTS after determination of basic minimum time tracks; with due consideration of airlines’ preferred routes and taking into account airspace restrictions such as danger areas and military airspace reservations. The night-time OTS is produced by Gander OACC and the day-time OTS by Shanwick OACC (Prestwick), each incorporating any requirement for tracks within the New York, Reykjavik, Bodø and Santa Maria Oceanic Control Areas (OCAs). OACC planners co-ordinate with adjacent OACCs and domestic ATC agencies to ensure that the proposed system is viable. They also take into account the requirements of opposite direction traffic and ensure that sufficient track/flight level profiles are provided to satisfy anticipated traffic demand. The impact on domestic route structures and the serviceability of transition area radars and navaids are checked before the system is finalised. Random routes and OTS tracks eastbound typically start with a “named” oceanic entry point, followed by Lat/Long waypoints, and typically end with 2 “named” waypoints, the first being the oceanic exit point, and the second being a “named” waypoint inside domestic airspace. Random routes and OTS tracks westbound typically start with a “named” oceanic entry point, followed by Lat/Long waypoints, and typically end with a “named” waypoint that is the oceanic exit point.
Source: NAT 007, 2.1 GENERAL; 2.2 Construction of the organised track system (OTS)
X
(08) State the OTS changeover periods.
2.4.1 To ensure a smooth transition from night-time to day-time OTSs and vice-versa, a period of several hours is interposed between the termination of one system and the commencement of the next. These periods are from 0801 UTC to 1129 UTC: and from 1901 UTC to 0059 UTC.
2.4.2 During the changeover periods some restrictions to flight planned routes and levels are imposed. Eastbound and westbound aircraft operating during these periods should file flight level requests in accordance with the Flight Level Allocation Scheme (FLAS) as published in the UK and Canada AIPs and shown at Attachment 5.
2.4.3 It should also be recognised that during these times there is often a need for clearances to be individually co-ordinated between OACCs and cleared flight levels may not be in accordance with those flight planned. If, for any reason, a flight is expected to be level critical, operators are recommended to contact the initial OACC prior to filing of the flight plan to ascertain the likely availability of required flight levels.
Source: NAT 007, 2.4 OTS Changeover periods
X
(09) Describe the NAT track message.
2.3.1 The agreed OTS is promulgated by means of the NAT track message via the AFTN to all interested addressees. A typical time of publication of the day-time OTS is 2200 UTC and of the night-time OTS is 1400 UTC.
2.3.2 This message gives full details of the coordinates of the organised tracks as well as the flight levels that are expected to be in use on each track. In most cases there are also details of domestic entry and exit routings associated with individual tracks (e.g. NAR). In the westbound (day-time) system the track most northerly, at its point of origin, is designated Track ‘A’ (Alpha) and the next most northerly track is designated Track ‘B’ (Bravo) etc. In the eastbound (night-time) system the most southerly track, at its point of origin, is designated Track ‘Z’ (Zulu) and the next most southerly track is designated Track ‘Y’ (Yankee), etc. Examples of both eastbound and westbound systems and NAT track messages are shown in this chapter.
2.3.3 The originating OACC identifies each NAT track message, within the Remarks section appended to the end of the NAT track message, by means of a 3-digit Track Message Identification (TMI) number equivalent to the Julian calendar date on which that OTS is effective. For example, the OTS effective on February 1st will be identified by TMI 032. (The Julian calendar date is a simple progression of numbered days without reference to months, with numbering starting from the first day of the year.) If any subsequent NAT track amendments affecting the entry/exit points, route of flight (coordinates) or flight level allocation are made, the whole NAT track message will be re-issued. The reason for this amendment will be shown in the Notes and a successive alphabetic character, i.e. ‘A’, then ‘B’, etc., will be added to the end of the TMI number (e.g. TMI 032A).
2.3.4 The remarks section is an important element of the NAT track message. Included is essential information for operators that may vary greatly from day to day. The Remarks may also include details of special flight planning considerations, reminders of ongoing initiatives (e.g., Data Link Mandate or PBCS trials), planned amendments to NAT operations, or active NOTAMS referencing airspace restrictions. The remarks section of both the Westbound and Eastbound OTS Messages will identify any designated PBCS tracks. The Eastbound OTS Message will also include important information on appropriate clearance delivery frequency assignments.
Source: NAT 007, 2.3 The NAT track message
X
(10) Illustrate routes between northern Europe and the Spain/Canaries/Lisbon flight information region (FIR) (T9, T13 and T16) within NAT HLA.
In LO (4) above.
Source: NAT 007, 3.2 Other routes within the NAT HLA
X
(11) Describe the function of the North American Routes (NARs) and Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) and Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA).
North American Routes (NARs)
3.3.1 The North American Routes (NARs) consist of a numbered series of predetermined routes which provide an interface between NAT oceanic and North American domestic airspace. The NAR System is designed to accommodate major airports in North America. (For further information see Chapter 4).
3.3.2 Full details of all NAR routings (eastbound and westbound) together with associated procedures are published in two saleable documents:
- – the United States Chart Supplement – Northeast U.S., currently available through the following:https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/productcatalog/supplementalcharts/Ai rportDirectory/
with an electronic version currently available through the following link:https://www.faa.gov/air_traffic/flight_info/aeronav/digital_products/dafd/and - – the Canada Flight SupplementIt should be noted that these routes are subject to occasional changes and are re-published/updated on a regular AIRAC 56-day cycle
Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) and Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA)
3.3.5 Parts of the Shanwick OCA are designated as the Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) and the Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA).
3.3.6 SOTA:
5100N 01500W- 5100N 00800W – 4830N 00800W – 4900N 01500W – 5100N 01500W FL060 TO FL600 INCLUSIVE
NOT INCLUDED IN NAT HLA*
*Note: Flights transitioning through SOTA and requiring an oceanic clearance FL285 to FL420 inclusive must meet NAT HLA requirements.
3.3.7 NOTA:
5400N 01500W – 5700N 01500W – 5700N 01000W – 5434N 01000W – 5400N 01500W FL 060 TO FL600 INCLUSIVE
NAT HLA FL285 TO FL420.
3.3.8 Air Traffic Services are provided by Shannon ACC using the call sign SHANNON CONTROL. Full details of the service provided and the procedures used are contained in AIP Ireland.
Source: NAT 007, 3.3 Route structures adjacent to the NAT HLA
X
(12) State that all flights should plan to operate on great-circle tracks joining successive significant waypoints.
Source: NAT 007, 4.1.3
X
(13) State that during the hours of validity of the OTS, operators are encouraged to plan flights:
— in accordance with the OTS;
— or along a route to join or leave an outer track of the OTS;
— or on a random route to remain clear of the OTS, either laterally or vertically.
Source: NAT 007, 4.1.4
X
(14) State which flight levels are available on OTS tracks during OTS periods.
4.1.10 Flights which are planned to remain entirely clear of the OTS or which join or leave an OTS track (i.e. follow an OTS track for only part of its published length), are all referred to as Random Flights. Flight crews intending to fly on a random route or outside the OTS time periods may plan any flight level(s) in accordance with the NAT FLAS.
Note 1: This FLAS is published in the UK and Canadian AIPs and described in Attachment 5.
Note 2: Arrangements for routes T9 and T290 are published in the UK AIP at ENR 3.5.
4.1.11 Flights which are planned to follow an OTS track for its entire length (during the OTS periods) may plan any of the levels published for that track, keeping in mind PBCS and DLM requirements.
Note: PBCS tracks will be identified in Note 3 of the OTS message. Operators planning to operate in the altitude band FL350-390 on the PBCS OTS are subject to equipage and authorization requirements as outlined in NAT OPS Bulletin, “Implementation of Performance Based Separation Minima”.
4.1.12 Operators may include climbs in the flight plan, although each change of level during flight must be requested from ATC by the flight crew. Approval of such requests will be entirely dependent upon potential traffic conflicts. ATC may not always be able to accommodate requested flight level changes and prudent pre-flight fuel planning should take this into consideration.
Source: NAT 007, 4.1.10; 4.1.11 and 4.1.12 (dates not required)
X
(15) State which flight levels are to be planned on random tracks or outside OTS periods.
4.1.13 If a flight is expected to be level critical, operators should contact the initial OACC prior to filing of the flight plan to determine the likely availability of specific flight levels.
Source: NAT 007, 4.1.13
X
(16) Selection of cruising altitude. Specify the appropriate cruising levels for normal long-range IFR flights and for those operating on the North Atlantic OTS.
In accordance with published OTS levels or join or leave an outer track.
Source:
NAT 007, Chapter 4 Flight Planning – Flight Levels; SERA
X
(17) Oceanic ATC clearances
State that it is recommended that pilots should request their oceanic clearance at least 40 minutes prior to the oceanic entry point estimated time of arrival (ETA).
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.2
X
(18) State that pilots should notify the oceanic area control centre (OAC) of the maximum acceptable flight level possible at the boundary.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.3
X
(19) State that at some aerodromes which are situated close to oceanic boundaries, the oceanic clearance must be obtained before departure.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.5
X
(20) State that if an aircraft, which would normally be RVSM- or NAT HLA-approved, encounters, whilst en-route to the NAT Oceanic Airspace, a critical in-flight equipment failure, or at dispatch is unable to meet the MEL requirements for RVSM or NAT HLA approval of the flight, then the pilot must advise ATC at initial contact when requesting oceanic clearance.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.6
X
(21) State that after obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by 3 minutes or more, unless providing position reports via automatic dependent surveillance — contract (ADS-C), the pilot must pass a revised estimate on to ATC.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.7
X
(22) State that pilots should pay particular attention when the issued clearance differs from the flight plan as a significant proportion of navigation errors investigated in the NAT Region involve aircraft which have followed their flight plan rather than the differing clearance.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.8
X
(23) State that if the entry point of the oceanic route for which the flight is cleared differs from that originally requested or the oceanic flight level differs from the current flight level, the pilot is responsible for requesting and obtaining the necessary domestic reclearance.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.9
X
(24) State that there are three elements to an oceanic clearance: route, Mach number, and flight level, and that these elements serve to provide for the three basic elements of separation: lateral, longitudinal, and vertical.
Source: NAT 007, 5.1.1
X
(25) Communications and position-reporting procedures
State that pilots communicate with OACs via aeradio stations staffed by communicators who have no executive ATC authority.
Source: NAT 007, 6.1.1
X
(26) State that messages are relayed from the ground station to the air traffic controllers of the relevant OAC for action.
Source: NAT 007, 6.1.1
X
(27) State that frequencies from the lower HF bands tend to be used for communications during night-time and those from the higher bands during daytime. Generally, in NAT, frequencies of less than 7 MHz are utilised at night and frequencies greater than 8 MHz are utilised during the day. When initiating contact with an aeradio station, the pilot should state the HF frequency in use.
Source: NAT 007, 6.1.4 and 6.1.7
X
(28) State that since oceanic traffic typically communicates with ATC through aeradio facilities, a satellite communication (SATCOM) call, made due to unforeseen inability to communicate by other means, should be made to such a facility rather than the ATC centre, unless the urgency of the communication dictates otherwise.
Source: NAT 007, 6.1.17
X
(29) State that an air-to-air VHF frequency has been established for worldwide use when aircraft are out of range of VHF ground stations which utilise the same or adjacent frequencies. This frequency, 123.45 MHz, is intended for pilot-to-pilot exchanges of operationally significant information.
Source: NAT 007, 6.2.2
X
(30) State that any pilot, who provides position reports via data link and encounters significant meteorological phenomena (such as moderate/severe turbulence or icing, volcanic ash or thunderstorms), should report this information.
Source: NAT 007, 6.5.2
X
(31) State that all turbine-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certified take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg or authorised to carry more than 19 passengers are required to carry and operate airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) II in the NAT Region.
Source: NAT 007, 6.9.1
X
(32) State that even with the growing use of data-link communications, a significant volume of NAT air–ground communications are conducted using voice on single sideband (SSB) HF frequencies. To support air–ground ATC communications in the North Atlantic Region, 24 HF frequencies have been allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 MHz.
Source: NAT 007, 6.1.3
X
(33) Application of the Mach number technique (NAT HLA)
State that practical experience has shown that when two or more turbojet aircraft, operating along the same route at the same flight level, maintain the same Mach number, they are more likely to maintain a constant time interval between each other than when using other methods.
Source: NAT 007, 7.2.1
X
(34) State that after leaving oceanic airspace, pilots must maintain their assigned Mach number in domestic controlled airspace unless and until the appropriate ATC unit authorises a change.
Source: NAT 007, 7.4.1
X
North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA) flight operation and navigation procedures
(35) NAT HLA flight operation and navigation procedures. State that the pre-flight procedures for any NAT HLA flight must include a Universal Time Coordinated (UTC) time check.
Source: NAT 007, 8.2.2
(36) Describe the function and use of the master document.
The Use of a Master Document
8.2.5 Navigation procedures must include the establishment of some form of master working document to be used on the flight deck. This document may be based upon the flight plan, navigation log, or other suitable document which lists sequentially the waypoints defining the route, the track and distance between each waypoint, and other information relevant to navigation along the cleared track. When mentioned subsequently in this guidance material, this document will be referred to as the ‘Master Document’.
8.2.6 Misuse of the Master Document can result in GNEs occurring and for this reason strict procedures regarding its use should be established. These procedures should include the following:
a) Only one Master Document is to be used on the flight deck. However, this does not preclude other flight crew members maintaining a separate flight log.
b) On INS equipped aircraft a waypoint numbering sequence should be established from the outset of the flight and entered on the Master Document. The identical numbering sequence should be used for storing waypoints in the navigation computers.
c) For aircraft equipped with FMS data bases, FMS generated or inserted waypoints should be carefully compared to Master Document waypoints and cross checked by both flight crew members.
d) An appropriate symbology should be adopted to indicate the status of each waypoint listed on the Master Document.
Source: NAT 007, 8.2.5 to 8.2.9
X
(37)
State the requirements for position plotting.
Source: NAT 007, 8.2.10 to 8.2.13
X
(38) Describe the pre-flight procedures for:
— the alignment of IRS;
— the satellite navigation availability prediction programme for flights using global navigation satellite long-range navigation system (GNSS LRNS);
— loading of initial waypoints; and
— flight plan check.
Source: NAT 007, 8.3.2 to 8.3.5; 8.3.6 to 8.3.8; 8.3.13 to
8.3.17
X
(39) Describe the strategic lateral offset procedure (SLOP) and state that along a route or track there will be three positions that an aircraft may fly: centre line, or 1 or 2 miles right.

Source: NAT 007, 8.5.1 to 8.5.5
X
(40) State that RNAV 10 retains the RNP 10 designation, as specified in the Performance-based Navigation Manual (ICAO Doc 9613), 1.2.3.5. (ICAO Doc 7030, NAT Chapter 4).”
Source: NAT 007, 1.3.4
X
(41) State that both aircraft and operators must be RNP 10- or RNP 4-approved by the State of the Operator or the State of Registry, as appropriate.
Source: NAT 007, 1.3.4
(42) State that RNP 10 is the minimum navigation specification for the application of 93 km (50 NM) lateral separation.
Source: NAT 007, 1.3.4 and 4.1.18
X
(43) Reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM) flight in NAT HLA
State the altimeter cross-check to be performed before entering NAT HLA.In-Flight – Before Operating in the NAT HLA
9.1.7 Most flights will approach the NAT HLA through European or North American RVSM airspaces. It is therefore expected that continuous monitoring of the serviceability of the aircraft’s height keeping systems will have been undertaken. Nevertheless, in view of the significant change of operating environment (i.e. to indirect surveillance and communications) it is recommended that a final confirmation of the aircraft systems serviceability is performed immediately prior to entering the NAT HLA. Check to ensure the two primary altimeters are reading within 200 feet of each other (or lesser value if specified in your aircraft’s flight manual). Conduct this check while at level flight. You should also note the stand-by altimeter reading. The readings of the primary and standby altimeters should be recorded to be available for use in any possible contingency situations.
Source: NAT 007, 9.1.10
X
(44) State the altimeter cross-check to be performed when entering and flying in NAT HLA.
9.1.8 One automatic altitude-control system should be operative and engaged throughout the cruise. This system should only be disengaged when it is necessary to re-trim the aircraft, or when the aircraft encounters turbulence and operating procedures dictate.
9.1.9 When passing waypoints, or at intervals not exceeding 60 minutes (whichever occurs earlier), or on reaching a new cleared flight level, a cross-check of primary altimeters should be conducted. If at any time the readings of the two primary altimeters differ by more than 200 ft, the aircraft’s altimetry system should be considered defective and ATC must be so informed.
Source: NAT 007, 9.1.12
X
(45) State that pilots not using controller–pilot data-link communications (CPDLC)/ADS-C always report to ATC immediately on leaving the current cruising level and on reaching any new cruising level.
Source: NAT 007, 9.1.15
X
(46) State that flight crew should report when a 300-ft deviation or more occurs.
Source: NAT 007, 11.3.4 and 11.3.6
X
(47) Navigation planning procedures
List the factors to be considered by the commander before commencing the flight.Source: NAT 007, 8.3 Pre-flight procedures
X
Navigation system degradation (NAT Doc 007, Chapter 12)
(48)
For this part, consider aircraft equipped with only two operational LRNSs and state the requirements for the following situations:
— one system fails before take-off;
— one system fails before the OCA boundary is reached;
— one system fails after the OCA boundary is crossed; and
— the remaining system fails after entering NAT HLA.
Source: NAT 007, 12.2
X
Special procedures for in-flight contingencies (NAT Doc 007, Chapter 13)
(49) State the general procedures and also state that the general concept of these NAT in-flight contingency procedures is, whenever operationally feasible, to offset the assigned route by 15 NM and climb or descend to a level which differs from those normally used by 500 ft if below FL 410 or by 1 000 ft if above FL 410.
Source: NAT 007, 13.1 and 13.2
X
(50) State all the factors which may affect the direction of turn including:
— direction to an alternate aerodrome;
— terrain clearance;
— levels allocated on adjacent routes or tracks and any known SLOP offsets adopted by other nearby traffic.
Source: NAT 007, 13.3.2
X
(51) State that if the deviation around severe weather is to be greater than 10 NM, the assigned flight level must be changed by ± 300 ft depending on the followed track and the direction of the deviation.
Source: NAT 007, 13.4
x
071 01 03 04 Extended-range operations with two-engined aeroplanes (ETOPS)
(01) State that ETOPS approval is part of an AOC.
Source:
Point SPA.ETOPS.100 ‘ETOPS’;
Point SPA.ETOPS.105 ‘ETOPS operational approval’
X
(02) State that prior to conducting an ETOPS flight, an operator shall ensure that a suitable ETOPS en-route alternate is available, within either the approved diversion time or a diversion time based on the MEL-generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shorter.
Source: Point SPA.ETOPS.110 ‘ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome’
X
(03) State the requirements for take-off alternate.
Where it is not possible to use the departure aerodrome as a take-off alternate aerodrome due to meteorological or performance reasons, the operator shall select another adequate take-off alternate aerodrome that is no further from the departure aerodrome than:
| (1) | for two-engined aeroplanes:
|
| (2) | for three and four-engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; |
| (3) | for operations approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart L — SINGLE-ENGINED TURBINE AEROPLANE OPERATIONS AT NIGHT OR IN IMC (SET-IMC), 30 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in still air conditions, based on the actual take-off mass. |
In the case of multi-engined aeroplanes, if the AFM does not contain an OEI cruising speed, the speed to be used for calculation shall be that which is achieved with the remaining engine(s) set at maximum continuous power.
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’
X
(04) State the planning minima for ETOPS en-route alternate.
SPA.ETOPS.115 ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome planning minima
| (a) | The operator shall only select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, between the anticipated time of landing until one hour after the latest possible time of landing, conditions will exist at or above the planning minima calculated by adding the additional limits of Table 1. |
| (b) | The operator shall include in the operations manual the method for determining the operating minima at the planned ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome.
Table 1 Planning minima for the ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome
|
Source: Point SPA.ETOPS.115 ‘ETOPS en-route alternate aerodrome planning minima’
X
(05) Navigation-planning procedures.
Describe the operator’s responsibilities concerning ETOPS routes.CAT.OP.MPA.135 Routes and areas of operation — general
| (a) | The operator shall ensure that operations are only conducted along routes, or within areas, for which:
|
| (b) | The operator shall ensure that operations are conducted in accordance with any restriction on the routes or the areas of operation specified by the competent authority. |
| (c) | point (a)(1) shall not apply to operations under VFR by day of other-than complex motor-powered aircraft on flights that depart from and arrive at the same aerodrome or operating site. |
CAT.OP.MPA.145 Establishment of minimum flight altitudes
| (a) | The operator shall establish for all route segments to be flown:
|
| (b) | The method for establishing minimum flight altitudes shall be approved by the competent authority. |
| (c) | Where the minimum flight altitudes established by the operator and a State overflown differ, the higher values shall apply. |
CAT.OP.MPA.150 Fuel policy
| (a) | The operator shall establish a fuel policy for the purpose of flight planning and in-flight replanning to ensure that every flight carries sufficient fuel for the planned operation and reserves to cover deviations from the planned operation. The fuel policy and any change to it require prior approval by the competent authority. |
| (b) | The operator shall ensure that the planning of flights is based upon at least:
|
| (c) | The operator shall ensure that the pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for a flight includes:
|
| (d) | The operator shall ensure that in-flight replanning procedures for calculating usable fuel required when a flight has to proceed along a route or to a destination aerodrome other than originally planned includes:
|
Source:
Point CAT.OP.MPA.135 ‘Routes and areas of operation — general’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.145 ‘Establishment of minimum flight altitudes’;
Point CAT.OP.MPA.150 ‘Fuel policy’
X
(06) Selection of a route.
Describe the limitations on extended-range operations with two-engined aeroplanes with and without ETOPS approval.No
(07) Selection of alternate aerodrome.
State the maximum flight distance of a take-off alternate for:
— two-engined aeroplanes;
| one hour flying time at an OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or |
— ETOPS-approved aeroplanes;
| the ETOPS diversion time approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart F, subject to any MEL restriction, up to a maximum of two hours, at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; |
— three- or four-engined aeroplanes.
| for three and four-engined aeroplanes, two hours flying time at the OEI cruising speed according to the AFM in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; |
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.180 ‘Selection of aerodromes — aeroplanes’
X
(08) State the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval.
CAT.OP.MPA.140 Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval
| (a) | Unless approved by the competent authority in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart F, the operator shall not operate a two-engined aeroplane over a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, under standard conditions in still air, than:
|
| (b) | The operator shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to an adequate aerodrome for each two-engined aeroplane type or variant operated, not exceeding VMO (maximum operating speed) based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane can maintain with one engine inoperative. |
| (c) | The operator shall include the following data, specific to each type or variant, in the operations manual:
|
| (d) | To obtain the approval referred to in (a)(2), the operator shall provide evidence that:
|
Source: Point CAT.OP.MPA.140 ‘Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval’
X
(09) State the requirement for alternate aerodrome accessibility check for ETOPS operations.
X
